What was your DSM-IV PDD Diagnosis?

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I used to go bowling all the time. I was in a league. I used to watch it quite a bit on TV. My high game is 222. I averaged about 130 at my best.

Do you think, had you pursued it, that you could have been a pro bowler?

The autism barriers would be to much to pursue that.

There was a baseball player, a very good one, who had manic-depressive psychosis.

His name was Jimmy Piersall. There's a movie about his life called "Fear Strikes Out."

He played in the Major Leagues for close to 15 years. He was so good that they kept him on teams, even when he pulled crazy stunts.

Piersall was definitely not a "social butterfly." People had similar reactions to him as the reactions of a "neurotypical" towards a moderately autistic person.

If one happens to be good at, say, bowling, averages, say, 250 all the time, no autism should be a barrier to this person becoming a successful professional bowler.

I don't have the communication skills necessary to function in that environment. Also, I'm not good enough to be a professional bowler yet. I barely function in Special Olympics with volunteers helping coordinate everything and my parents a few feet away.

Good ol classic autism.

I'm diagnosed with Asperger's, and that is still what I use as my diagnosis. Asperger's is still an ICD-10 diagnosis, and I still believe that it is an actual clinical entity. I was quite disappointed by its removal in the DSM-5. I think there are still a lot of things to sort out, like why some people with Asperger's have a more classic autism phenotype and others (like kraftiekortie mentioned) have more of an NVLD phenotype. I have been officially diagnosed with both Asperger's and NVLD, even though NVLD has never been an official DSM diagnosis. (My IQ scores meet the proposed NVLD criterion of a 15+ difference between PIQ and VIQ.) I think this severity scale that the DSM-5 uses doesn't describe the picture well enough. There are definite different ASD subtypes, and only explaining them by their severity level isn't a good approach for research purposes, in my opinion.

I was probably on DSM-III Revised, it was 1991. I got dx'd as PDD-NOS with Asperger's traits.

Cleveland Clinic.

I also had the joy of being told that only 1 in every 500,000 people had it, also being told that I'd be wrong about everything in my life, that every way I'd read people would be completely wrong, and that I'd have to trust other people's perceptions far over my own (I was 11 at the time). It was really barbaric and disgusting and I think hearing that about myself, in addition to being torn up at school on a regular basis, really put a chip on my shoulder about the condition. As far as I understood it it was doctors telling me that I was a medical grade loser - a truly hopeless omega male.

Really I'm happy for people who got dx'd later because they more than likely didn't have to deal with that sort of bedside manner.

You are correct, Asperger's is still an ICD-10CM diagnosis. My ICD-10CM diagnosis is Autistic Disorder, which specifically excludes Asperger's.

I was diagnosed under the DSM-IV with Asperger's as an adult. At the time the DSM-V & the rearrangements w/regard to Autism were in discussion. At the clinic I was diagnosed thru, the psychiatrists wanted me diagnosed under IV because I was borderline (vs being non-diagnose-able), but "textbook", Asperger's (even tho I'm female). Even after V came out, I was told I did not come close to being diagnose-able under ASD.

I'm really quite unhappy with all the lumping together. I don't want the Autism/ASD label. My current prescribing doc still has the codes for the DSM-IV in use as well as the DSM-V ones. As soon as his system drops the support for IV, I'll go back to the list of things that affect me instead of taking the ASD label. I'll admit that I'm frustrated. As soon as we figured out where I fit, the rug was pulled out from underneath.

PDD-NOS