Did God err in making Adam ruler over Eve?
I believe so. That and the other Mystery schools who saw the serpent as the bringer of life. That these is world wide regardless of the continent. Quite a coincidence eh?
Remember Moses using a serpent in Egypt. His serpent headed staff led the way. It is the icon of the Jewish priestly class.
http://www.ancient-origins.net/myths-le ... ult-002393
Regards
DL
Matthew let it slip about the wisdom of serpents.
Matt 10:16 " So be wise as serpents and yet harmless as a dove."
Indeed.
Christianity purged almost everything positive about the feminine out of scriptures as well as the positive attributes of the serpent.
Regards
DL
lol. I don’t understand flat-earthers. And then there’s the Young Earth/Old Earth debate. I stay out of those.
I just mean if you really think the Bible says this or Christians believe that, one would reasonably assume there was some actual basis for the belief.
So if I’m to refute some attack on Christian faith, I need that person to back up what he says. It’s not my job to comb through the entire Bible to support what YOU want the text to say.
No I don't think any part of the Bible says that the earth is flat. I was referring to the way you repetitively ask the same question over and over and expect a response.
As for GnosticBishop,I don't quite know what he means either. The closest I can think off would be Matthew 19:9, in which Jesus specifies the only circumstances he thinks a man can divorce his wife. Jesus didn't name the circumstances in which in which a woman can divorce her husband. Perhaps GnosticBiship interpreted that omission to mean a woman can never initiate a divorce.
I don't know whether or not Jesus thought it was ok to for a woman to leave her husband if he committed the same act mentioned in Matthew 19:9.
I read this as Jesus saying that there is no divorce allowed at all and that was the original orthodox view.
I see that as immoral and anti-love as it forces women to stay in abusive or loveless marriages.
Many of those marriages may have been loveless and abusive right from day one.
Read Deuteronomy 22:28-29
Then read Deuteronomy 21:10-14
Imagine being married to the man who killed your family.
Oddly enough there are parts of the OT that warn against marrying foreign girls with their pagan religions yet Deuteronomy 21:10-14 seems to encourage marrying of foreign girls.
Anyway at worst it's barbaric and at best it's irrelevant to modern life.
I imagine modern day apologists will have a lot of clever ways to justify these passages but if their justification is it was ok back in those days, that suggests they're saying it's not relevant to modern times.
If the apologists say, that was the best morality man could come up with back in those days, that suggests that Biblical morality comes from man and not from God.
If they say that was the best morality man could come up with back in those days and then say Biblical morality is sourced from God and therefore objectively perfect, I'd call that a bait and switch.
Well put. + 1
I do not think morality is objective. I think it subjective and no one has ever come up with an objective moral tenet that I could not show to be subjective.
Regards
DL
RetroGamer87
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Nomadic people couldn't incarcerate criminals and when they settled in Israel they still didn't. Neither did neighboring kingdoms or any other nation for the next 3,000 years. Incarcerating criminals is a modern idea. They didn't practice because they were nomadic, they didn't practice it because the practice hadn't been invented yet, not even for settled people.
The OT prescribes different punishments for different crimes but I can't recall any part of the OT that says criminals should be punished with enslavement. I believe this treatment was used for debtors, not other types of criminal. Enslavement was also used for POWs of course.
They did it too!
They did it too!
Next you're going to be saying "but he started it". Saying "they did it too" is about the worst justification I can think of.
Do I expect this ancient people to create laws that live up to modern standards? No. Definitely not. They couldn't possibly think of modern ideas.
But I expect the perfect and wise God to create laws that vastly exceed modern standards. Instead we get the sort of laws that we would expect an ancient people to think up by themselves.
I've heard people say that the objectively perfect morality of the Bible is a gift that could have only come from God. What I see is the subjective and average morality that ancient people could easily think up by themselves.
This is fine for an ancient people but when I hear people say the Bible should be used as a source for objectively perfect morality I get concerned because they may be mistaking the Israelites subjective and average mortality for objectively perfect morality.
I know that if the ancient Israelites had had better laws, some people would disobey them. I'm sure people disobeyed their laws anyway, just as people disobey the laws in modern times. That is to be expected. Yet the law can still serve as a guiding light to the people who aren't criminals.
I can understand why they'd make a law against sex outside marriage because they didn't want pregnancy out of marriage. Back then there were no contraceptives.
Thousands of years later, certain Christians would claim contraceptives are immoral because they make it easier to have sex outside of marriage without being impregnated outside of marriage.
To make a rule against contraception because it encourages people to break another rule (by eliminating the problem the original rule was designed to prevent) suggests that some churches are more concerned about rules then consequences.
I think in the absence of modern contraceptives the rule that brides must be virgins and that sex cannot take place outside of marriage is reasonable. Some people who read the OT expect modern people to remain virgin outside of marriage.
The trouble is, the OT doesn't change. It had some good ideas for the time but it doesn't change. You've got people saying the Bible is still relevant today (parts of it are but not that part). You've got people saying God's morality, as recorded in the Bible is objectively perfect. Even if it was perfect for ancient times it's not perfect for modern times. To call it objectively perfect suggests that it's perfect for all time and encourages people to use it today.
Attempted murder sounds like a pretty serious crime. I'd expect a crime that is tantamount to attempted murder to have a much larger penalty than a fine of 50 shekels. A fine of 50 shekels (payable to her owner) sounds like the penalty for destruction of property (the girl), not the penalty for attempted murder.
Also which part of the passage says the girl was betrothed? It just says she's a virgin.
The context here is violations of proper sexual conduct and pertains to Israelites.
This passage is especially interesting against the backdrop of arranged and "loveless" marriages. To arrange a marriage, assuming the two love each other, a man would have to "buy" the bride from her father. Her father wouldn't be obligated to agree to it. What I want to know is why would a man rape a woman where they'd be discovered? This law creates a situation in which a father could be forced to give his daughter away in marriage.
Which is it? Is her father not obligated or is he forced into it?
It also saves the girl and her father a lot of shame in the whole affair. Doesn't matter if they were in love. Doesn't matter if the truth was that sex was actually consensual. She was being a good little girl and this MAAAAAAN tricked her and seduced her. By making a claim of rape, neither the girl nor her father or her family have to openly admit to her promiscuity. It allows her family to save face. Dad HAD to give her in marriage because now he can't give her to anyone else. It's out of dad's hands now. So when dad's friends make fun of them for her daughter's apparent bad behavior, all he has to do is politely remind them that she was "raped."
The custom of women shaving their heads, trimming nails, changing clothes is indicative of a religious conversion and assimilating into Hebrew society. It may seem cruel to us now, but back then this would have been advantageous to conquered women. It granted them a free status and special protection that unmarried prisoners of war wouldn't have. If the husband divorced her, she was free to go as an Israelite woman, which meant she could not be treated as property.
Was the forced marriage followed by a forced consummation? To be raped is bad enough but to be raped by a foreign enemy, someone you saw killing your own people and possibly your own family is just adding to the trauma.
Even if she was given marriage and conversion to Judaism as a choice, what if the choice was "convert and get married or starve". Not a very good choice, is it.
As I said before, it's about as good as I'd expect for ancient people. But if they got their laws from a perfect God, as they claimed, as some people still claim, their laws should not only exceed ancient standards but they should also exceed modern standards by a very wide margin. Yet they fall in line with ancient standards.
If the modern way is better, why do some churches still want to do it the virgin way? I guess rules is rules.
I'm not saying you're like this and I'm not blaming you for the actions of some of the stubborn Christians.
The problem you run into is if you want to practice righteousness consistent with the OT, you have to apply ALL the laws. All 613 of them.[/quote]Yep. You are right. It's a shame no one told the guys who like to cite Leviticus 18:22 that they should also obey the other 612 laws.
Or the people who want everyone to follow the ten commandments. Should they follow the other 603 laws as well?
If they say that was the best morality man could come up with back in those days and then say Biblical morality is sourced from God and therefore objectively perfect, I'd call that a bait and switch.
I'd question whether someone sources his morality from himself or from God.
Even the Bible says none of you are righteous. Perhaps they should read it.
I'm not trying to condemn all Christians or even the majority of Christians but I've met a few who seemed act as though they sourced their morality from the Pharisees.
Did we get a better society because we became more skilled at interpreting God's ancient law and changing it to suit modern times? Or did society become better because we started paying less attention to the Bible?
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AngelRho
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Retro: good stuff. I was hoping to respond by now, but it seems I’ve got some routine meatspace fires to put out. I was hoping to contain the discussion to the New Testament, which would have been much less time-consuming. But since a New Testament response from Gnostic doesn’t seem to be forthcoming in the near future, a diversion doesn’t strike me so bad for the time being.
Do help me with one minor thing, though: Avoid bringing up Biblical passages such as Lev. 18:22. That’s running into protected-class territory and there’s no fair way for me to address it. For what it’s worth, though, I’ll just say that anyone who gives anyone else a hard time over any one given law, just because THEY don’t struggle with that ONE law, should really examine themselves against the other 600+ laws. I believe Jesus called them “hypocrites.” I believe we are all born with the capacity for sin and are each predisposed to a select few. I may not be a Lev. 18:22 person, but, say if I were in private someone who got turned on by Lev. 18:23, or some other moral failing, then I hardly have any right to condemn the person in 18:22. We all possess that in some form. So casting the first stone always has a deeper rational than simply being sinless. Most of the time, we don’t enforce secular laws based on our perfection but rather to keep people safe in an orderly society. What are the goals of a theocracy? What does God’s exemplary theocratic society look like? That’s where the friction begins between God’s righteousness and a secular world with protected classes. I’d enjoy discussing it further, but site rules won’t allow it.