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GnosticBishop
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04 Nov 2017, 11:32 am

Misslizard wrote:
GnosticBishop wrote:
RetroGamer87 wrote:
So when they made the serpent the villain in Genesis, was it an attempt to make the serpent cult look bad?


I believe so. That and the other Mystery schools who saw the serpent as the bringer of life. That these is world wide regardless of the continent. Quite a coincidence eh?

Remember Moses using a serpent in Egypt. His serpent headed staff led the way. It is the icon of the Jewish priestly class.

http://www.ancient-origins.net/myths-le ... ult-002393

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DL

Matthew let it slip about the wisdom of serpents.
Matt 10:16 " So be wise as serpents and yet harmless as a dove."


Indeed.

Christianity purged almost everything positive about the feminine out of scriptures as well as the positive attributes of the serpent.

Regards
DL



GnosticBishop
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04 Nov 2017, 11:39 am

RetroGamer87 wrote:
GnosticBishop wrote:
RetroGamer87 wrote:
AngelRho wrote:
RetroGamer87 wrote:
You remind me of a flat earther I argued with on Facebook who kept posting "where is the curve?", " where is the curve?", over and over again.

lol. I don’t understand flat-earthers. And then there’s the Young Earth/Old Earth debate. I stay out of those.

I just mean if you really think the Bible says this or Christians believe that, one would reasonably assume there was some actual basis for the belief.

So if I’m to refute some attack on Christian faith, I need that person to back up what he says. It’s not my job to comb through the entire Bible to support what YOU want the text to say.

No I don't think any part of the Bible says that the earth is flat. I was referring to the way you repetitively ask the same question over and over and expect a response.

As for GnosticBishop,I don't quite know what he means either. The closest I can think off would be Matthew 19:9, in which Jesus specifies the only circumstances he thinks a man can divorce his wife. Jesus didn't name the circumstances in which in which a woman can divorce her husband. Perhaps GnosticBiship interpreted that omission to mean a woman can never initiate a divorce.

I don't know whether or not Jesus thought it was ok to for a woman to leave her husband if he committed the same act mentioned in Matthew 19:9.


I read this as Jesus saying that there is no divorce allowed at all and that was the original orthodox view.
I see that as immoral and anti-love as it forces women to stay in abusive or loveless marriages.


Many of those marriages may have been loveless and abusive right from day one.

Read Deuteronomy 22:28-29

Then read Deuteronomy 21:10-14

Imagine being married to the man who killed your family.

Oddly enough there are parts of the OT that warn against marrying foreign girls with their pagan religions yet Deuteronomy 21:10-14 seems to encourage marrying of foreign girls.

Anyway at worst it's barbaric and at best it's irrelevant to modern life.

I imagine modern day apologists will have a lot of clever ways to justify these passages but if their justification is it was ok back in those days, that suggests they're saying it's not relevant to modern times.

If the apologists say, that was the best morality man could come up with back in those days, that suggests that Biblical morality comes from man and not from God.

If they say that was the best morality man could come up with back in those days and then say Biblical morality is sourced from God and therefore objectively perfect, I'd call that a bait and switch.


Well put. + 1

I do not think morality is objective. I think it subjective and no one has ever come up with an objective moral tenet that I could not show to be subjective.

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DL



RetroGamer87
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04 Nov 2017, 5:55 pm

AngelRho wrote:
The Old Testament shows how God uses a chosen group of people to relate to the world in a different way than it relates to itself. The Israelites had been slaves in Egypt; the new order would do away with slavery as the Israelites had known it. Slavery was acceptable as repayment for criminal behavior. Nomadic people couldn't incarcerate criminals, plus incarceration removes one's usefulness to society. Slavery is preferable because it allows someone to live, it allows a certain degree of freedom, it grants restitution, and it grants restoration of the slave to society once the criminal debt to society is repaid.

Nomadic people couldn't incarcerate criminals and when they settled in Israel they still didn't. Neither did neighboring kingdoms or any other nation for the next 3,000 years. Incarcerating criminals is a modern idea. They didn't practice because they were nomadic, they didn't practice it because the practice hadn't been invented yet, not even for settled people.

The OT prescribes different punishments for different crimes but I can't recall any part of the OT that says criminals should be punished with enslavement. I believe this treatment was used for debtors, not other types of criminal. Enslavement was also used for POWs of course.
AngelRho wrote:
The ancients maintained slavery in such a way that it formed a cornerstone of society, the abolishment of which would cause societal collapse.
In that case the Israelites should have been happy to be slaves in Egypt, satisfied that they were the cornerstone of society. Did they cause societal collapse in Egypt when they left?
AngelRho wrote:
The OT also has laws outlining how a slave may choose to permanently devote himself to his master (they literally nailed you to the door), plus much of it describes professional servants as well as involuntary servitude.
Yep the Hebrew slaves could choose to leave on Jubilee year or stay with master so they wouldn't have to leave their wife and kids. On the other hand foreign slaves weren't given this choice. They were permanently slaves no matter what. Hey, do you like cartoons?



AngelRho wrote:
The two Bible passages you mentioned are set against the backdrop of the evil human nature of mankind as a whole. Taking women as spoils of war is still practiced now, so you can't hand wave it as an exclusively ancient practice. It's evolved in the West in recent decades. Invading Russians in WWII raped German women and girls. It still happens on the African continent. ISIS. And now you have the underground trafficking of women. We're talking about ongoing practices that were practiced in the open in pre-Christian and even pre-Hebrew times and which happens in secret now. God allows humanity to choose good over evil, or not. Humanity always has time to make good choices before God makes those choices for us. Slavery now is non-existent as an accepted institution and mostly driven underground.

They did it too!
They did it too!

Next you're going to be saying "but he started it". Saying "they did it too" is about the worst justification I can think of.

Do I expect this ancient people to create laws that live up to modern standards? No. Definitely not. They couldn't possibly think of modern ideas.

But I expect the perfect and wise God to create laws that vastly exceed modern standards. Instead we get the sort of laws that we would expect an ancient people to think up by themselves.

I've heard people say that the objectively perfect morality of the Bible is a gift that could have only come from God. What I see is the subjective and average morality that ancient people could easily think up by themselves.

This is fine for an ancient people but when I hear people say the Bible should be used as a source for objectively perfect morality I get concerned because they may be mistaking the Israelites subjective and average mortality for objectively perfect morality.

I know that if the ancient Israelites had had better laws, some people would disobey them. I'm sure people disobeyed their laws anyway, just as people disobey the laws in modern times. That is to be expected. Yet the law can still serve as a guiding light to the people who aren't criminals.
AngelRho wrote:
The status of women, likewise, is largely changed from how secular society viewed them in ancient times.
I'd say for most of the world the status of women has changed a great deal since ancient times, unless you're exclusively cherry picking the status of women in certain parts of the middle east to compare with ancient Israel.
AngelRho wrote:
I like to think maybe Hebrew laws represent a turning point in how women are perceived and treated.
A turning point? They came out of Egypt, a land that had the best women's rights record in the ancient world. The ancient Israelites didn't have the best women's rights, even when measured against other countries that existed at that time.
AngelRho wrote:
In ancient Israel they believed that a man continued his existence after death through his male children. He wasn't considered truly "gone" until his name died out. According to this view, a bride's virginity was important because it guaranteed that the bloodline would continue. To take a betrothed woman's virginity was tantamount to attempted murder. I'm not saying they were right, I'm just saying this was the thought process at the time.
I can understand that. I wouldn't want to raise another dudes kids. If I lived thousands of years before the invention of contraceptives of and paternity tests I would want my bride to be a virgin. I wouldn't want to risk her carrying another man's child on our wedding night.

I can understand why they'd make a law against sex outside marriage because they didn't want pregnancy out of marriage. Back then there were no contraceptives.

Thousands of years later, certain Christians would claim contraceptives are immoral because they make it easier to have sex outside of marriage without being impregnated outside of marriage.

To make a rule against contraception because it encourages people to break another rule (by eliminating the problem the original rule was designed to prevent) suggests that some churches are more concerned about rules then consequences.

I think in the absence of modern contraceptives the rule that brides must be virgins and that sex cannot take place outside of marriage is reasonable. Some people who read the OT expect modern people to remain virgin outside of marriage.

The trouble is, the OT doesn't change. It had some good ideas for the time but it doesn't change. You've got people saying the Bible is still relevant today (parts of it are but not that part). You've got people saying God's morality, as recorded in the Bible is objectively perfect. Even if it was perfect for ancient times it's not perfect for modern times. To call it objectively perfect suggests that it's perfect for all time and encourages people to use it today.

Attempted murder sounds like a pretty serious crime. I'd expect a crime that is tantamount to attempted murder to have a much larger penalty than a fine of 50 shekels. A fine of 50 shekels (payable to her owner) sounds like the penalty for destruction of property (the girl), not the penalty for attempted murder.

Also which part of the passage says the girl was betrothed? It just says she's a virgin.
AngelRho wrote:
RetroGamer87 wrote:
Read Deuteronomy 22:28-29

The context here is violations of proper sexual conduct and pertains to Israelites.

This passage is especially interesting against the backdrop of arranged and "loveless" marriages. To arrange a marriage, assuming the two love each other, a man would have to "buy" the bride from her father. Her father wouldn't be obligated to agree to it. What I want to know is why would a man rape a woman where they'd be discovered? This law creates a situation in which a father could be forced to give his daughter away in marriage.
I thought you said "Her father wouldn't be obligated to agree to it." Now you're saying "a father could be forced to give his daughter away in marriage."

Which is it? Is her father not obligated or is he forced into it?
AngelRho wrote:
The couple who are in love simply have to have sex, have two friends "discover" them, and bring their case before the city elders. The husband only has to pay the bride price and they can be together. Or if he can't afford the 50 silver shekels, he can work for his father-in-law until the price is paid off or forgiven.

It also saves the girl and her father a lot of shame in the whole affair. Doesn't matter if they were in love. Doesn't matter if the truth was that sex was actually consensual. She was being a good little girl and this MAAAAAAN tricked her and seduced her. By making a claim of rape, neither the girl nor her father or her family have to openly admit to her promiscuity. It allows her family to save face. Dad HAD to give her in marriage because now he can't give her to anyone else. It's out of dad's hands now. So when dad's friends make fun of them for her daughter's apparent bad behavior, all he has to do is politely remind them that she was "raped."
That's a clever trick but this law also applied in actual cases of rape too, right?
AngelRho wrote:
Virginity, I think, is actually a bigger deal among certain present-day Christians than it was among the ancient Hebrews.
You may be right yet a lot of modern Christians say they got their morality from the Bible. They don't say they improved on God's morality by placing a greater emphasis on virginity.
AngelRho wrote:
Different context. Women as spoils of war.
I know it's a different context. I was citing two different things from the Bible.
AngelRho wrote:
RetroGamer87 wrote:
Imagine being married to the man who killed your family.
Agreed, that's pretty horrifying. But that's just the reality of an ancient world that's foreign to us.

The custom of women shaving their heads, trimming nails, changing clothes is indicative of a religious conversion and assimilating into Hebrew society. It may seem cruel to us now, but back then this would have been advantageous to conquered women. It granted them a free status and special protection that unmarried prisoners of war wouldn't have. If the husband divorced her, she was free to go as an Israelite woman, which meant she could not be treated as property.
That sounds like a big advantage for her. But was she given a choice about whether or not she wanted to avail herself of this advantage?

Was the forced marriage followed by a forced consummation? To be raped is bad enough but to be raped by a foreign enemy, someone you saw killing your own people and possibly your own family is just adding to the trauma.



AngelRho wrote:
Marrying foreign girls as spoils of war in the Israelite historical context can only work IF the girl converts. Shaving her head, trimming her nails, disposing of her clothes along with any other remnant of her former cultural and religious practices are a few things that signify conversion and commitment to her new adoptive nation and way of life.
Was she given a choice in the matter? Or was it a forced conversion as well? hat would happen if she refused to convert?

Even if she was given marriage and conversion to Judaism as a choice, what if the choice was "convert and get married or starve". Not a very good choice, is it.
AngelRho wrote:
RetroGamer87 wrote:
Anyway at worst it's barbaric and at best it's irrelevant to modern life.
Barbaric compared to the quality of life we're used to. Unusually equitable for the ancient world.
Are you sure the surrounding kingdoms didn't have similar laws? Have you studied the laws of the surrounding kingdoms? No, neither have I.

As I said before, it's about as good as I'd expect for ancient people. But if they got their laws from a perfect God, as they claimed, as some people still claim, their laws should not only exceed ancient standards but they should also exceed modern standards by a very wide margin. Yet they fall in line with ancient standards.
AngelRho wrote:
RetroGamer87 wrote:
I imagine modern day apologists will have a lot of clever ways to justify these passages but if their justification is it was ok back in those days, that suggests they're saying it's not relevant to modern times.
I wouldn't say "ok back in those days." I'd just say that's just how things were. If we felt that anything was ever OK, those kinds of things wouldn't have changed now. Sexual purity IS still a feature of modern society. It's just understood more as a way of staying safe, not as a means of belonging to your husband or wife or pleasing God for its own sake. It's important because it safeguards against unwanted pregnancy and disease, not because it's reflective of the best relationship with God. We can test for paternity, so guaranteeing your progeny are yours is no longer relevant. And attitudes towards children and their importance have changed.
So why do some churches say sex education shouldn't mention contraception? Did they not hear that the modern version of sexual purity is a way of saying safe and involves contraceptives? Since we can test for paternity why do we need to use the old fashioned way of ensuring the kid is yours (impregnating a virgin).

If the modern way is better, why do some churches still want to do it the virgin way? I guess rules is rules.
AngelRho wrote:
The relevance is strictly to the establishment of a theocracy composed of a specific ethnic group devoted to Yahweh worship. How useful those laws are to modern society are up for debate
They're not up for debate according to some people.
AngelRho wrote:
but I think it's really up to the individual and up to individual families to what degree these laws are important and how closely they should be followed.
Not up do individual families according to some people.

I'm not saying you're like this and I'm not blaming you for the actions of some of the stubborn Christians.



The problem you run into is if you want to practice righteousness consistent with the OT, you have to apply ALL the laws. All 613 of them.[/quote]Yep. You are right. It's a shame no one told the guys who like to cite Leviticus 18:22 that they should also obey the other 612 laws.

Or the people who want everyone to follow the ten commandments. Should they follow the other 603 laws as well?
AngelRho wrote:
RetroGamer87 wrote:
If the apologists say, that was the best morality man could come up with back in those days, that suggests that Biblical morality comes from man and not from God.

If they say that was the best morality man could come up with back in those days and then say Biblical morality is sourced from God and therefore objectively perfect, I'd call that a bait and switch.

I'd question whether someone sources his morality from himself or from God.
I'd question it too but I've heard a few Christians say their morality comes from God himself.

Even the Bible says none of you are righteous. Perhaps they should read it.

I'm not trying to condemn all Christians or even the majority of Christians but I've met a few who seemed act as though they sourced their morality from the Pharisees.
AngelRho wrote:
Biblical morality is sourced from God, yes, and is therefore perfect. But I also think Torah laws are reflective also of the times during which they were given just from the way they're worded. The spirit of the laws is eternal, timeless. So does man choose to follow a morality of his own whimsical design, or does he want to be consistent with what God wants for creation? If you have the ability to choose which moral patterns to follow, then "the best morality man could come up with" is ruled by a sinful nature and, among other things, marginalizes human beings: the weak, the children, the women. If you choose morality patterned after God's will for mankind, you end up fighting the evil status quo and making human life more equitable for all. I think modern society in which Judeo-Christian values are predominant has done more towards realizing a way of life more in line with what God intended. It's not perfect, no. People are still evil. But better this than, say, the ancient world or even the medieval world.
As you say, modern society is better than ancient society or medieval society. Who deserves credit for this improvement? Man or God?

Did we get a better society because we became more skilled at interpreting God's ancient law and changing it to suit modern times? Or did society become better because we started paying less attention to the Bible?


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AngelRho
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06 Nov 2017, 10:31 am

Retro: good stuff. I was hoping to respond by now, but it seems I’ve got some routine meatspace fires to put out. I was hoping to contain the discussion to the New Testament, which would have been much less time-consuming. But since a New Testament response from Gnostic doesn’t seem to be forthcoming in the near future, a diversion doesn’t strike me so bad for the time being.

Do help me with one minor thing, though: Avoid bringing up Biblical passages such as Lev. 18:22. That’s running into protected-class territory and there’s no fair way for me to address it. For what it’s worth, though, I’ll just say that anyone who gives anyone else a hard time over any one given law, just because THEY don’t struggle with that ONE law, should really examine themselves against the other 600+ laws. I believe Jesus called them “hypocrites.” I believe we are all born with the capacity for sin and are each predisposed to a select few. I may not be a Lev. 18:22 person, but, say if I were in private someone who got turned on by Lev. 18:23, or some other moral failing, then I hardly have any right to condemn the person in 18:22. We all possess that in some form. So casting the first stone always has a deeper rational than simply being sinless. Most of the time, we don’t enforce secular laws based on our perfection but rather to keep people safe in an orderly society. What are the goals of a theocracy? What does God’s exemplary theocratic society look like? That’s where the friction begins between God’s righteousness and a secular world with protected classes. I’d enjoy discussing it further, but site rules won’t allow it.