EzraS wrote:
Considering this event is known as the immaculate conception and the woman was described as a virgin mother, obviously no sexual intercourse of any form took place. Furthermore it took place with the woman's foreknowledge and concent. So the concept of rape being involved is inapplicable.
A little nit pick here.
That actually is not what the phrase "Immaculate Conception" means.
Yes, she was a virgin. Yes the conception was miraculous. And you're not alone in the confusion. A billion other folks also wrongly think the term 'immaculate conception" refers to Christ being conceived miraculously to a virgin. But NO. That is not what the phrase refers to. It refers to the earlier moment when the Virgin Mary herself was conceived. Its a mind warp for me too to keep that distinction in mind, but that's what it is.
"The immaculate conception" is the Catholic doctrine that when the Virgin Mary was herself conceived (the normal way humans and mammals are all conceived) that she was conceived free of Original Sin.
Adam and Eve got us all screwed when they ate the apple and got us all shaded by that "Original Sin". But the Virgin Mary was an exception, and got a free pass from original sin when she was born/concieved. Thus her conception was "immaculate": (ie clean of the stain of Adam and Eve's Original sin).
Ah I should have known. I knew it was a catholic term, rather than it being in the book.