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thewhitrbbit
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29 Sep 2012, 7:26 pm

Are there actually laws against Paedophilia?

A crime requires an actual criminal act as well as a criminal mind.

Someone could have desires but that would not be illegal.

If someone acted on those desires that would be illegal. You cannot say that an 8 year old child could consent to have sex with a 50 year old man.

People who do that deserve to be shot on site.



LKL
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29 Sep 2012, 10:05 pm

Wrt. the 'they're more fertile!' argument for ephebophilia, they are not;
Image
However, the mothers themsselves have a lower death rate in the late teens/early 20's.
http://www.who.int/bulletin/volumes/85/ ... index.html
If one picks a time to have kids based on the fewest total deaths of both mothers and children, the early to mid 20's is the best bet.



AspieOtaku
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29 Sep 2012, 11:36 pm

I think it should stay illegal because picturing an adult having sex with a child is down right disgusting also traumatizing to the childs childhood.If it were legal the lowest aoc would have to be 16 but I still think its disgusting.


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Tequila
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30 Sep 2012, 9:17 am

AspieOtaku wrote:
I think it should stay illegal because picturing an adult having sex with a child is down right disgusting also traumatizing to the childs childhood.If it were legal the lowest aoc would have to be 16 but I still think its disgusting.


It's 16 in the UK. Children aren't really children by that age, though - they're almost adults, in their mid-late teens.



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30 Sep 2012, 9:45 am

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Marriageable_age

Quote:
Traditionally, across the world, the age of consent for a sexual union was a matter for the family to decide, or a tribal custom. In most cases, this coincided with signs of puberty, menstruation for a woman and pubic hair for a man.

In Ancient Rome, it was very common for girls to marry and have children shortly after the onset of puberty....

The first recorded age-of-consent law dates back 800 years: In 1275, in England, as part of the rape law, a statute, Westminster 1, made it a misdemeanor to "ravish" a "maiden within age," whether with or without her consent. The phrase "within age" was interpreted by jurist Sir Edward Coke as meaning the age of marriage, which at the time was 12 years of age....

In the 12th century Gratian, the influential founder of Canon law in medieval Europe, accepted age of puberty for marriage to be between 12 and 14 but acknowledged consent to be meaningful if the children were older than 7. There were authorities that said that consent could take place earlier. Marriage would then be valid as long as neither of the two parties annulled the marital agreement before reaching puberty, or if they had already consummated the marriage. It should be noted that Judges honored marriages based on mutual consent at ages younger than 7, in spite of what Gratian had said; there are recorded marriages of 2 and 3 year olds....

The American colonies followed the English tradition, and the law was more of a guide. For example, Mary Hathaway (Virginia, 1689) was only 9 when she was married to William Williams. Sir Edward Coke (England, 17th century) made it clear that "the marriage of girls under 12 was normal, and the age at which a girl who was a wife was eligible for a dower from her husband's estate was 9 even though her husband be only four years old."....


Lord Edmund Blackadder and his wife

[youtube]http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=7mVABo5XByQ[/youtube]



CyborgUprising
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30 Sep 2012, 2:09 pm

jekenai wrote:
CyborgUprising wrote:
Pedophilia/child molestation/sex with a child should be illegal for the following reasons:

1) A child's brain is not yet matured (neither is an 18-year-old's) enough to understand the gravity of such a decision. One could wind up pregnant (which a child's young teen's body is not designed to accomodate) or contract an STD.

2) As I have mentioned earlier, their bodies aren't designed for intercourse. There are several instanced when I interned at a correctional facility where inmates caused severe injuries to infants, toddlers, children and young teenagers after having sex with them. An infant even died as a result.

3) Children tend to dislike being molested/having sex with the perpetrator. Often the perpetrator groomed their victims and told the victim they "owed" them something in return. The victims expressed a sense of dread regarding the act that was to occur. There is a reason it is called child sexual abuse.

Note that I attempted to avoid bringing ethics/morals into the issue, since that is the easiest way to lose credibility in an argument.


Again: Paedophilia is not sex with children, is not abuse, is not molestation.

ad 1) "neither is an 18-year-old's" Then when he/she is? And who decides?


If you would actually read the first sentence, you'd see that I utilized the "/" to denote "or," thus showing that I did in fact consider the differences between pedophilia (sexual attraction towards children, with or without a sexual act being committed), molestation of a child (which may or may not involve "penetration" -- groping, etc.) and intercourse involving a minor. One cannot make thoughts illegal, but the term is commonly used colloquially to refer to the actions resulting from the desires (child pornography, molestation, rape).

The age of 18 is still sufficient to comprehend (in a person of a normal-functioning brain) what sex is, though perhaps they may not understand fully the gravity of such a decision. Generally, the Common Law courts have reached a concensus that a person who can grasp the concept of right and wrong were viewed as being at the "age of majority." this has been changed several times in the history of America's legal system, but many states now feel the age at which someone can be responsible for themselves and own property, etc. is 18 (some 17 and even 16). Of course, this is subjective, as is any decision regarding the age of majority/consent, regardless of who decides.



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30 Sep 2012, 2:47 pm

[youtube]http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=KwNBiah-7J4&feature=related[/youtube][youtube]http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=zoSd0fUDaLE&feature=related[/youtube] :lol:


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jekenai
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30 Sep 2012, 4:50 pm

CyborgUprising wrote:
If you would actually read the first sentence, you'd see that I utilized the "/" to denote "or," thus showing that I did in fact consider the differences between pedophilia (sexual attraction towards children, with or without a sexual act being committed), molestation of a child (which may or may not involve "penetration" -- groping, etc.) and intercourse involving a minor. One cannot make thoughts illegal, but the term is commonly used colloquially to refer to the actions resulting from the desires (child pornography, molestation, rape).


Then it means that you want paedophilia to be illegal. Using the word paedophilia to refer to the actions is wrong and it makes people to hate paedophiles. (Because then they think like "Paedophile = child molester, if you are attracted to children, than you are paedophile, therefore you are child molester and I hate you.")



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30 Sep 2012, 5:15 pm

Because children are more vulnerable than adults. They are also not as capable of making informed decisions as adults.

In other words, children need to be protected - by all of us.


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AspieOtaku
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30 Sep 2012, 5:34 pm

nominalist wrote:
Because children are more vulnerable than adults. They are also not as capable of making informed decisions as adults.

In other words, children need to be protected - by all of us.
This is why and I totally agree.


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30 Sep 2012, 6:19 pm

AspieOtaku wrote:
nominalist wrote:
Because children are more vulnerable than adults. They are also not as capable of making informed decisions as adults.

In other words, children need to be protected - by all of us.
This is why and I totally agree.

I agree 100%.

But you do have to face certain problems. There are, I think, obvious instances in which child sex are harmful to the child, i.e. children who aren't developed far enough along to enjoy sexual contact or are physically unable to engage in certain forms of sexual contact without severe consequences.

But that doesn't mean that some children at a certain age or stage of physical and emotional development can't respond positively to sexual stimulation. I think, perhaps more than we'd like to admit, young people often are physically able to have sex or some related sexual contact and could conceivably consent to what we might refer to as "sexual play" with adults as they would people closer to their own age. It's possible that this kind of "play" is enjoyable and poses no lasting consequences for the child.

What I'm interested in here is what exactly makes sex play, regardless of the ages of the participants, so wrong if no emotional or physical damage is involved. It's important to note that sex play is normal behavior for many children and doesn't necessarily directly involve sexual intercourse itself. A pedophile who gratifies himself (or herself) this way is no doubt a pervert, but at worst they are guilty of lewdness or inappropriate gratification of lust--more deserving of misdemeanor charge than a felony charge. In reality, you so much as look at a child cross-eyed and you have to register as a sex offender.

Take away any physical or emotional risk to the child and you have no justification for criminalizing sex play. In reality, telling a judge "he/she put my hand there," EVEN IF TRUE, just isn't going to cut it. I strongly suspect that it ultimately involves a moral argument.



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30 Sep 2012, 6:26 pm

^It's more upsetting years later when you realise that you were being used in your naivety and innocence. You didn't fully realised what they were doing at the time. The adult who uses a child for 'sexual play' has betrayed the trust that kid had in them.


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30 Sep 2012, 7:06 pm

ErniePringle wrote:
Why are there laws against paedophilia? The fact that the age of consent differs from country to country, and even from state to state, plainly demonstrates that youth and maturity are mere social constructs used to maintain the status quo.

A person of 15 might in fact be more mature than another person of 17. Say then that these two people were both in relationships with 19 year olds, and say that the age of consent was 16. Then the law might unfairly damage the relationship of the 15 year old while doing nothing to prevent the 17 year old from being exploited.

And then there is the culturally supremacist aspect. The age of consent in America and in other western countries is typically 16 or 17. But in China and Sierra Leone for example it is 14. This is simply sending out a thinly-disguised message that certain practices and by extension certain people (eg, people with too much melanin in their skin or with funny-shaped eyes) are not welcome here.

I am not saying that I have sexual relations with young teens myself, but I think you can see my point.




First of all, what you are talking about is not pedophilia! It is actually called ephebophilia but what you are really talking about is
statutory rape.


The main reason they were put on the books in the first place is to protect underage girls from getting knocked up by adult men; and putting the burden of raising and providing for the child onto the girls parents since she herself is underage. A lot of underage girls prefer to date and shag guys who are much older than them(particularly adult men in their late teens and 20s)because most teenage boys are immature, egotistical, and often unempathic.

The reason why the law has decided to enforce statutory rape legislation against "cougars" who have sex with underage boys despite ignoring this for the longest time has to do with child support laws, which in these times are being vigorously enforced. If an underage boy bangs an adult woman , gets her pregnant, and she decides to have the baby. Then she could file for child support and since the boy is underage, his parents would be forced to assume the role of the child's legal guardian AND financially obligated(by Law) to pay child support money to the woman their son was banging.

So it really isn't about "maturity" as much as it is about the desire for the parents of teenagers to not be held legally responsible for their grandchildren.



30 Sep 2012, 7:17 pm

CyborgUprising wrote:
Pedophilia/child molestation/sex with a child should be illegal for the following reasons:

1) A child's brain is not yet matured (neither is an 18-year-old's) enough to understand the gravity of such a decision. One could wind up pregnant (which a child's young teen's body is not designed to accomodate) or contract an STD.

2) As I have mentioned earlier, their bodies aren't designed for intercourse. There are several instanced when I interned at a correctional facility where inmates caused severe injuries to infants, toddlers, children and young teenagers after having sex with them. An infant even died as a result.

3) Children tend to dislike being molested/having sex with the perpetrator. Often the perpetrator groomed their victims and told the victim they "owed" them something in return. The victims expressed a sense of dread regarding the act that was to occur. There is a reason it is called child sexual abuse.

Note that I attempted to avoid bringing ethics/morals into the issue, since that is the easiest way to lose credibility in an argument.



You're using child as a legal term when it's much more of a biological term. A child is the human equivalent of a tadpole. Tadpoles undergo a metamorphosis state that transforms them from being a tadpole into an adult frog. THAT is what adolescence is: a transitionary stage between childhood and adulthood. Puberty is is human metamorphosis.

To molest means to touch or fondle without consent. What pedophiles do is basically child RAPE: They force children to have sex with them against that child's will. NOBODY enjoys being raped, but "statutory rape" is legally distinguishable from "sexual assault" in the sense that if an underage person is physically coerced or threatened into have sex with someone that is "sexual assault". But if a teenager gives his/her permission that its statutory rape.

The first point you make however, is something that you cannot possible know because you cannot verify what goes on in another persons brain. Some 30 year olds may not truly understand the gravity of a sexual situation but it's assumed that they do. So the scientific argument really does not apply here since different people develop emotionally and sexually at different rates.



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30 Sep 2012, 7:44 pm

CyborgUprising wrote:
jekenai wrote:
CyborgUprising wrote:
Pedophilia/child molestation/sex with a child should be illegal for the following reasons:

1) A child's brain is not yet matured (neither is an 18-year-old's) enough to understand the gravity of such a decision. One could wind up pregnant (which a child's young teen's body is not designed to accomodate) or contract an STD.

2) As I have mentioned earlier, their bodies aren't designed for intercourse. There are several instanced when I interned at a correctional facility where inmates caused severe injuries to infants, toddlers, children and young teenagers after having sex with them. An infant even died as a result.

3) Children tend to dislike being molested/having sex with the perpetrator. Often the perpetrator groomed their victims and told the victim they "owed" them something in return. The victims expressed a sense of dread regarding the act that was to occur. There is a reason it is called child sexual abuse.

Note that I attempted to avoid bringing ethics/morals into the issue, since that is the easiest way to lose credibility in an argument.


Again: Paedophilia is not sex with children, is not abuse, is not molestation.

ad 1) "neither is an 18-year-old's" Then when he/she is? And who decides?


If you would actually read the first sentence, you'd see that I utilized the "/" to denote "or," thus showing that I did in fact consider the differences between pedophilia (sexual attraction towards children, with or without a sexual act being committed), molestation of a child (which may or may not involve "penetration" -- groping, etc.) and intercourse involving a minor. One cannot make thoughts illegal, but the term is commonly used colloquially to refer to the actions resulting from the desires (child pornography, molestation, rape).

The age of 18 is still sufficient to comprehend (in a person of a normal-functioning brain) what sex is, though perhaps they may not understand fully the gravity of such a decision. Generally, the Common Law courts have reached a concensus that a person who can grasp the concept of right and wrong were viewed as being at the "age of majority." this has been changed several times in the history of America's legal system, but many states now feel the age at which someone can be responsible for themselves and own property, etc. is 18 (some 17 and even 16). Of course, this is subjective, as is any decision regarding the age of majority/consent, regardless of who decides.


AspieRogue wrote:
You're using child as a legal term when it's much more of a biological term. A child is the human equivalent of a tadpole. Tadpoles undergo a metamorphosis state that transforms them from being a tadpole into an adult frog. THAT is what adolescence is: a transitionary stage between childhood and adulthood. Puberty is is human metamorphosis.

To molest means to touch or fondle without consent. What pedophiles do is basically child RAPE: They force children to have sex with them against that child's will. NOBODY enjoys being raped, but "statutory rape" is legally distinguishable from "sexual assault" in the sense that if an underage person is physically coerced or threatened into have sex with someone that is "sexual assault". But if a teenager gives his/her permission that its statutory rape.

The first point you make however, is something that you cannot possible know because you cannot verify what goes on in another persons brain. Some 30 year olds may not truly understand the gravity of a sexual situation but it's assumed that they do. So the scientific argument really does not apply here since different people develop emotionally and sexually at different rates.


AspieRogue, I addressed this already. Please read this earlier post. I emphasized "normal functioning brain" and the Common Law decisions regarding age of majority. There is research available in regards to the development of a "normal" brain. I didn't fabricate this as your statement makes it seem. The research is what led to the decision that in the U.S. persons of a certain age cannot generally be charged as adults and are not afforded the same privileges as adults (voting, drinking, driving, smoking, you get the idea). I have also distinguished between the acts as well, but it appears you didn't include that post or perhaps you didn't see it (yet found the previous post??).The "tend to" in the initial post was meant in a sort of tongue-in-cheek manner, obviously nobody wants to be raped (unless they are part of that "rape fetish" subculture, but that is a whole 'nother Oprah - or perhaps - Dr. Phil.)



30 Sep 2012, 7:55 pm

CyborgUprising wrote:


AspieRogue, I addressed this already. Please read this earlier post. I emphasized "normal functioning brain" and the Common Law decisions regarding age of majority. I have also distinguished between the acts as well, but it appears you didn't include that post or perhaps you didn't see it (yet found the previous post??).The "tend to" in the initial post was meant in a sort of tongue-in-cheek manner, obviously nobody wants to be raped (unless they are part of that "rape fetish" subculture, but that is a whole 'nother Oprah - or perhaps - Dr. Phil.)



You need to cautious when using concepts like "normalized brain function" when it comes to the law because science's knowledge of the brain is still very limited and the technology to truly read someones mind and experience what they do does not yet exist! The point I'm trying to get across is that psychological maturity is still very much SUBJECTIVE so I am rebutting your argument that is objective. Please see my first post ITT as it offers an explanation based on things which are objective(like pregnancy and paternity).