Congress may soon pass unconstitutional law

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jimservo
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21 Mar 2007, 10:50 pm

The House of Representatives, under it's new Democratic leadership, is working to pass legislation which would give the delegate from the District of Columbia the power to vote in the House of Representatives. Should it pass the Senate and be signed into law, this would be a gross violation of the U.S. Constitution.

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Right now, in the guise of a civil rights issue, the new Congress is attempting one of the most brazenly unconstitutional power grabs in our nation’s history. The move aims to create a new class of congressman and simply add the first of these to the 435 existing members of the United States House of Representatives.

This design will dilute the legitimate representation of the 50 states and create a dangerous precedent that, if allowed to stand, will make it legal for the federal government to alter the constitutionally defined makeup of the Congress itself with nothing more than a simple law, bypassing the required constitutional amendment process, which requires a two-thirds supermajority in Congress followed by the approval of three-fourths of the individual states.


The bill that threatens to open up this Pandora’s box goes by the Orwellian name "District of Columbia Fair and Equal House Voting Rights Act of 2007" (H.R. 328). It has already passed committee and is expected shortly to be rammed through the full House by the Democrat leadership. The purpose of H.R. 328 is to give the District of Columbia a voting representative in the House. According to its supporters, the bill is necessary to correct the “injustice” of the residents of the capital not having their own congressional delegation.


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The district is defined as a possession of Congress in Article 1, Section 8 of the Constitution, which says the Congress shall have power:

“To exercise exclusive legislation in all cases whatsoever, over such District (not exceeding ten miles square) as may, by cession of particular states, and the acceptance of Congress, become the seat of the government of the United States,”


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The district is thus entitled to none of the rights of a state -- for example, the Tenth Amendment of the Constitution does not apply to the district. (Of course, the individuals living in the district are entitled to all the individual rights of any American, just as an American living in other non-state territories such as Samoa or Guam would be, but the district cannot claim the rights of a state any more than Guam can.)

This means the federal district must not have a representative in either house of Congress, since the Constitution says that “The Senate of the United States shall be composed of two Senators from each state,” (Article 1, section 3) and that “The House of Representatives shall be composed of members chosen every second year by the people of the several states, and the electors in each state shall have the qualifications requisite for electors of the most numerous branch of the state legislature” (Article 1, section 2).

It would be difficult for the Constitution to be any more clear on this point: the Congress of the United States is composed of the representatives of the states and of the people that live in those states. (That’s why the country is called the “United States of America,” after all.) The District is not a state; it is therefore prohibited the congressmen due a state. But this Congress isn’t letting little things like the United States Constitution get in the way of adding one more representative to the House majority.

Formerly, such minor details of the law were respected by the Congress. When Congress desired in 1960 to let the population of D.C. vote in presidential elections -- a right that does not affect the status of D.C. as a neutral location in debates between states -- they did so by passing the 23rd Amendment to the Constitution, because they knew that sending a delegation to the Electoral College was a right reserved in the Constitution only to the states. The Constitution thus had to be changed to grant D.C. such an exception.

Likewise, when Congress last decided to try to undo the Founders’ work and make the District a special non-state player in Congress back in 1978, it did so honestly by passing a proposed amendment to the Constitution as required -- the “District of Columbia Voting Rights Amendment.” The amendment was then sent to the states for approval, where it was rejected overwhelmingly by more than two thirds of the states. It seems the states were very happy to have the capital remain neutral ground.


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Once the precedent is set, the Congress can vote to give D.C. two representatives in Congress, or any number it wants since it’s claiming a new arbitrary power. And then there’s always the possibility of adding two senators for D.C. and really changing the playing field so that it slopes well leftward. In fact, a measure stating that senators will not be sought for D.C. is being stripped from the bill (even though it would have been non-binding anyway). Regarding the prohibition on seeking senators, Eleanor Holmes Norton, D.C.’s non-voting (for now) delegate to the House, openly admitted to the Washington Post, “We’ll never give up on full citizenship rights. That one is not going to make it.” Today we take an inch, tomorrow we take a mile.

But then that’s how such corrupt power seeking always works -- once the foot is in the door, the crack is pushed open until you can shove two senators through -- or for that matter, until you can shove Puerto Rico, the Virgin Islands, Guam, and Samoa through -- for why stop at one non-state territory having a delegation in Congress?

While the media frets over the privacy rights of terrorists, the dire consequences of a nativity scene too near a courthouse in Kentucky, or some other grave “threat” to the Constitution, they are silent while the party in power in Congress plots to upend the Constitutional definition of the legislative branch itself and begin packing the Congress with illegitimate imposters. Not since the Roman Emperor Caligula tried to make his horse a Consul, has an Imperial City seen such an insulting power grab. The horse, however, was less of a threat to Rome than the current jackasses in Congress are to America.*


(From...(sigh)...Human Events]

*The story of the Emperor Gaius (Caligula) making his horse a Consul is widely seen as apocryphal, although I suppose this remark is intended in humor.



dexkaden
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21 Mar 2007, 11:43 pm

It would be a blatant violation of the US Constitution, although given the current state of things, the constitution I love, the one I believe to be one of man's greatest achievements, is also being interpreted as a "living document," and most of the laws in play right now violate the intent of the constitution in one way or another. I hope to God my fellow citizens refuse to allow for DC to be allowed seats in congress or the senate. Sneaky bastards. I hope enough people think through the implications of this. The District of Columbia was created to allow for a neutral ground for the head of state. But again, people don't think, and I am a little bit afraid.


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Flagg
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21 Mar 2007, 11:47 pm

Damn politicians are at it again...


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ahayes
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22 Mar 2007, 1:22 am

If said law is unconstitutional, the supreme court should veto it.



Flagg
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22 Mar 2007, 1:25 am

ahayes wrote:
If said law is unconstitutional, the supreme court should veto it.


The Supreme Court declares laws unconstitutional. It doesn't "veto" them. That's the president's job.

For once I'm happy the Supreme Court and White House are red owned and operated.


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Jacob_Landshire
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22 Mar 2007, 8:25 am

Allowing DC representation to vote in the house is a minor blemish on a constitution that has been thoroughly stomped into the mud. Consider the Military Commissions Act of 2006.


Keith Olbermann is a sensationalist, but his take on how this act effects the constitution is worth watching.
[youtube]http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=59wc6i62UgI[/youtube]


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gobi
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22 Mar 2007, 9:53 am

I'm sorry for asking, but what't the problem? The DC population pays federal taxes, particpates in presidential elections, and has a population larger than Wyoming. Is there any legitimate reason why DC shouldn't be represented?



richardbenson
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22 Mar 2007, 10:14 am

i thought washington dc was a state



gobi
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22 Mar 2007, 10:24 am

richardbenson wrote:
i thought washington dc was a state


The "DC" stands for District of Columbia.



Finlay
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22 Mar 2007, 10:56 am

Personally, I think the District of Columbia ought to be abolished as it is an antebellum relic. Let Maryland and Virginia have it (they ceded the territory for it, anyway): that way, it won't upset the balance of power in the Senate that much. The Federal buildings can remain under the formal jurisdiction of congress for symbolic purposes.



jimservo
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22 Mar 2007, 11:34 am

gobi wrote:
I'm sorry for asking, but what't the problem? The DC population pays federal taxes, particpates in presidential elections, and has a population larger than Wyoming. Is there any legitimate reason why DC shouldn't be represented?


The question is not why the District of Columbia should not be represented. A constitutional amendment may be presented, if one objects to that. The issue is the Constitution is clear that the District is not to be treated as a state and get voting representation in congress. It is not a good thing for a society to simply ignore it's shortcut it's own laws for the sake of "fairness." The precedent that is then established could be used to pass more less honorable matters.

Jacob_Landshire wrote:
Allowing DC representation to vote in the house is a minor blemish on a constitution that has been thoroughly stomped into the mud. Consider the Military Commissions Act of 2006.


Military tribunals have a long established precedent in American history, going back to before the Republic was even formed. The Supreme Court backed military tribunals passed by congress to try German saboteurs in the Second World War. Tribunals existed in WWI, and the Civil War. There is literally no basis in law to assume that such tribunals are unconstitutional, and no international compact signed by the United States would make it so.



gobi
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22 Mar 2007, 12:30 pm

jimservo wrote:
The question is not why the District of Columbia should not be represented. A constitutional amendment may be presented, if one objects to that. The issue is the Constitution is clear that the District is not to be treated as a state and get voting representation in congress. It is not a good thing for a society to simply ignore it's shortcut it's own laws for the sake of "fairness." The precedent that is then established could be used to pass more less honorable matters.


The Constitution does not make clear the idea that "the District is not to be treated as a state and get voting representation in congress." It merely enumerates that representatives in Congress are to come from states. However, Article I, Section 8, Clause 17 leaves the legislation governing the District wide open: "Congress shall have power to exercise exclusive Legislation in all Cases whatsoever, over such District (not exceeding ten Miles square) as may, by Cession of particular States, and the Acceptance of Congress, become the Seat of Government of the United States, and to exercise like Authority over all Places purchased by the Consent of the Legislature of the State in which the same shall be, for the Erection of Forts, Magazines, Arsenals, dock–Yards, and other needful Buildings."

Technically, Congress can do what it wants within the District, period. Throw the 9th Amendment in for good measure and there's no reason why Congress can't authorize (via the US Code) voting representatives in Congress. The 16th Amendment (Income Tax) is a fine example of this. DC residents pay federal income taxes, not because of the 16th Amendment ("The Congress shall have power to lay and collect taxes on incomes, from whatever source derived, without apportionment among the several States, and without regard to any census or enumeration." -- Note the same use of the same "several States" language used in Article 1, Sec. 2.) but because of Article I, Section 8, Clause 17.



jimservo
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22 Mar 2007, 1:13 pm

gobi, nice to have some back and forth on this.

From the Washington Post (note that this is an excerpt, Judge Kenneth Star, albeit arguing for the government, argued in favor of your position)

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The latest report focuses on the two parts of the Constitution that are at the center of the D.C. vote debate. One is a clause that limits House membership to individuals chosen "by the People of the several States." Courts have determined that the phrase excludes the District, the report says.

The second relevant part of the Constitution, the "District Clause," grants Congress broad authority over the city. The bill's proponents note that the Supreme Court ruled in 1949 that Congress could use its powers to give D.C. residents the same rights as other citizens.

That case, National Mutual Insurance Co. v. Tidewater, concerned the right to have a federal court hear lawsuits involving people of two states.

But the research service says that ruling was narrow. Six justices wrote that the congressional powers over the District weren't big enough to justify making "structural changes to the federal government," the report says. Giving a vote to the District would be such a change, it says.

Congress created the Congressional Research Service to be a source of nonpartisan, objective analysis and research on legislative issues. Part of the Library of Congress, it works for members of Congress, their committees and staff and issues hundreds of reports each year.


(source)

gobi wrote:
Technically, Congress can do what it wants within the District, period.


I assume this is meant to be somewhat of an (intended) exaggeration. The Bill of Rights applies inside the district. I'm not too good with picking up irony :wink:

gobi wrote:
Throw the 9th Amendment in for good measure and there's no reason why Congress can't authorize (via the US Code) voting representatives in Congress. The 16th Amendment (Income Tax) is a fine example of this. DC residents pay federal income taxes, not because of the 16th Amendment ("The Congress shall have power to lay and collect taxes on incomes, from whatever source derived, without apportionment among the several States, and without regard to any census or enumeration." -- Note the same use of the same "several States" language used in Article 1, Sec. 2.) but because of Article I, Section 8, Clause 17.


This is a more then relevent point. It should be noted that intention is also important (I should not that I am am "originalist" and not a "textualist"). What the founders what have meant is not necessarily what the later framers what have meant. Of course, an important question to ask in this case is were federally taxes talked about it relation to the district and then applied at the the time (1913).



richardbenson
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22 Mar 2007, 1:33 pm

gobi wrote:
richardbenson wrote:
i thought washington dc was a state
The "DC" stands for District of Columbia.
whats that? a county? sounds like its apart of south america



gobi
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22 Mar 2007, 2:31 pm

jimservo wrote:
gobi, nice to have some back and forth on this.


Indeed.

Two quick points:

1. The status of DC residents within the Constitution has been debated on a number of occaisions, to include whether the Bill of Rights actually applies. This is one of those interesting cases where the "textual" interpretation runs quite counter to the intent of the Constitution, simply because the verbiage of the document is a bit sloppy (--the meaining of "district" and "territory" being ill-formed at the creation). Taken at face value, DC residents have virtually no rights, other than the 9th Amendment (which is pretty lame). The District Clause and "Congressional Exclusivity" negate any real Constitutional protections.

2. Like everything related to Constitutional law, the additon of district (or territorial) voting representation could be interpreted a number of ways. If the Tidewater case suggests that DC residents can be conferred the same rights as state citizens by Congress, the debate then centers around whether district representation counts as a "structural change". And while CRS is a solid institution, this is a question for the Supreme Court (pending, of course, bill passage and subsequent legal action). Whether the bill itself represents an unconstitutional act is certainly debatable. But the presumed requirement that an Amendment is needed to establish DC representational rights is overstated, greatly.



gobi
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22 Mar 2007, 2:34 pm

richardbenson wrote:
gobi wrote:
richardbenson wrote:
i thought washington dc was a state
The "DC" stands for District of Columbia.
whats that? a county? sounds like its apart of south america


The District of Columbia is the city where the US federal government is seated. It's between the states of Maryland and Virginia, and it is not a state. And I commute through it every day. Twice.