drive-fulfillment fantasy

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I was reading the wikipedia page about alexithymia and encountered the term "drive-fulfillment fantasy". What does that even mean? It says they have a lack of it. I think I have a lack of it if it means what I think it means but I'm not sure what it means.

Don't you just hate it when Wikipedia, or other sources, use terms they don't define. Ugh! Talk about one of my peeves!

Edit: I looked all over the internet and all the sites that talk about alexithymia all spew the same definition as if copying & pasting from the same site. Very annoying. If they don't know, they need to just man up and say, "I don't know."

My guess is that it means realistic fantasies about realistic goals that you want to achieve in the future rather then completely unrealistic fantasies that can't even happen or that you use for entertainment but may not even want to really happen.

I couldn't find any definition of it online either.

At least with the current age of the internet, looking stuff up isn't as much as a hassle as it used to be. I used to hate reading and then having to put the book down to look up a word in the dictionary -it's as frustrating as watching a good movie and then having to stop to fix the antenna.

I think this is badly phrased or someone trying to be too clever, maybe?


Might be easier to understand broken down.

Drive fulfillment - Psychological need or desire that require satisfying. (From Drive Theory)

Fantasy - Is this is even the correct word, needs or desires that are actually fantasy, and then having a lack of this too?????

Sorry, I'm giving up.

Maybe look up the original reference?

So basically, fantasising about having one's needs or desires satisfied?

I think you are right but the statement was regarding a lack of drive-fulfillment fantasy. The original context is this:

In general, these individuals lack imagination, intuition, empathy, and drive-fulfillment fantasy, especially in relation to objects.

Individuals with alexithymia,
EITHER:
are not able to fantasize about fulfilling their psychological needs.
OR
not be able to fantasize what their psychological needs should be.

If the drive theory assumption is correct then the first one is likely to be true, it still seems an ambiguous statement to me.

I know what the original topic was. I thought the confusion was over the term "drive-fulfilment fantasy" not the words "lack of".

Me too.