Actually, p>=1 would work too (or even possibly p>=0 (anything raised to 0 is 1).
As far as the proof, I would not remember how to state it in mathematical terms but I can say that somewhere in the answer, it should read that as p gets larger, so does the denominator and therefore the whole equation converges toward 0 (which is what the answer would be at p=infinity).
I hope this helped somewhat.
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Louis J Bouchard
Rochester Minnesota
"Only when all those who surround you are different, do you truly belong."
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Fred Tate Little Man Tate