Wolfram87 wrote:
My history might be off here, but wasn't Palestine under British control until after WW2? In which case the answer becomes "because the previous owners said so"? Not that I really support either side of this conflict.
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Yes- Palestine became a "Mandate" (area ruled and looked after, but not actually a colony) of Britain at the end of the First World War because the whole Middle East had to be reorganized because of the fall of the vast Turkish ruled Ottoman Empire in he First World War.
And London allowed Zionist Jews to move into the Mandate of Palestine at that time. But because of that it does not follow that the modern state of Israel should annex the West Bank, and Gaza- if anything the opposite.
Under British rule here were areas designated as jewish areas and other areas as Arab areas. The Jewish areas became more or less the same piece of land that became the nation of Israel in 1947, and as it continued to exist on the map prior to 1967, and the Arab areas became Gaza and the West Bank (the former became part of Egypt 47 to 67, and the later part of Jordan 47 to 67). So (if anything) going by precedent with the former British overlords of both the Jews and the Arabs of Palestine Israel would be expressly forbidden to annex the West Bank and Gaza because both Jews and Arabs would only be allowed to settle in the areas that the Brits told both groups to settle in back in the era between the world wars.
The Golan Heights were never even part of British Palestine, but part of Syria. Were seized during the 1967 war, and occupied, but never officially annexed by Israel. Its a separate kettle of fish from the issue of Gaza and the West Bank, because the Golan Heights are not Palestinian territory.