DNA from the Bible's Canaanites lives on in Arabs and Jews

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Can anyone imagine the smell in Noah's ark?

On a slightly related tangent...I’ve always wondered if there was any truth to Christian Identity (the white supremacist idea that European Christians are genetically descended from Northern Israel and thus have a superior claim on Israel than the Jews). I don’t mean the white supremacist part, I mean whether the nations of Europe had origins in ancient Israel, perhaps as descendants of disinherited Hebrew slaves. Typically we think, oh, they’re racists, they can’t possibly be right. But it would be interesting to see whether Jews in the diaspora hadn’t been mixing it up with their brothers and sisters all along and never knew it.

I view Israel as a spiritual home for all who worship God, one that all believers will one day return to. Revelation says that a fixed number of the tribes of Israel will rule in Heaven. Trouble is, there’s only one tribe. That means the remaining number will come from among those who don’t even know who they really are.

Regarding Ishmael, he’d been cut off from the inheritance and God’s desire that future rulers would descend through Abraham. Ishmael is only Isaac’s half-brother, not exactly blessed in the same sense. His descendants and Esau’s descendants were perpetual enemies of Israel. They weren’t subject to the horrors of conquest as the Canaanites were for the simple reasons they had the good sense to stay out of the promised land.

White Gentile Europeans (and presumably all White Americans) have their origin in "northern Israel"?

How could this possible be anything other than...stupidity wrapped in stupidity wrapped into even more stupidity?

It is like saying that I, Naturalplastic, am the ancestor of the entire nation of Japan. Japan is a big population country, and it already long existed before I was born, and continues to exist contemporary with me.

The Jewish kingdoms of Israel and Judea came into being around 1000 BC. About 2000 years after civilization had begun in Egypt and in Mesopotamia.

For your theory to be true Europe would have to have been empty of people at that time. Stonehenge was already 15 centuries old when Joshua arrived in the Promised Land. Long story short: Etruscan, Greek, and Roman civilizations were emerging in southern europe at about the same time as the history of the Biblical Hebrews unfolded.

Virtually all modern European languages are Indo-European. No European language is Semitic. So there is no linguistic connection to the ancient Hebrews with any modern European nationality.

Just the first few problems that come to me off the top of my head.

How do you envision what you're saying? you're claiming that people from the northern half of a flyspeck sized country (northern Israel), were the ancestors of a race who occupy an entire continent (White Europeans)...a race that already occupied that continent at the same time in history as northern Israel existed.

Nope....the Indo-Europeans were established in Europe and Asia long before the time of Moses.

By about the time of Moses (probably a bit before), some of the Indo-Europeans who migrated east had already arrived in India to found the Indus Valley civilization