The 15 billion yrs of cosmos & 6 dys of creation r same.

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Macbeth
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27 Jul 2007, 6:22 pm

spdjeanne wrote:
Macbeth wrote:
Thinking on what Calandale said, I would dearly like to see the guide to the bible.. the footnotes that tell everyone exactly what is supposed to be figurative, literal, metaphor, and just plain fiction. People seem to be quite clearly set on the idea that water into wine is something that actually happened, but are producing clever and complex explanations as to why other parts are figurative.

Sounds like a right load of b*llocks to me. Biggest flaw I can see with the whole Genesis timing sequence? The rest of the Bible is in "normal time." Why is that one part given in normal time, which is used to (apparently) disguise all that physics about time in higher gravitational fields etc etc? If we arbitrarily decide that the Genesis timescale is not literal, how are we to then decide what else is, or isnt? Why, if the rest IS in genuine time, would only that part be in figurative time? Why would this information be masked in such a way? Why would people who are quite happy to spend pages listing endless lines of lineage in excruciatingly tedious detail skimp on the first part?

It also vaugely reminds me of all that mystical number crap that comes out of measuring pyramids. The height divided by half the width of the diameter of one third of Giza happens to be the exact distance to alpha centauri if you times it by some other figure plucked at random from another bit of pyramid. That sort of thing. Clever manipulation of maths can lead to all sorts of random results that will prove just about anything.


The reason that different parts of the Bible are interpreted differently is because, contrary to popular belief and colloquial usage of the title, the Bible is not a book but a collection of writings each with its own cultural background and context. Even the section called Genesis itself is a collection of writings. There are two different accounts of creation and many other stories that are obviously mythological in nature before more historical writings begin. It is simplistic to think that every part of the Bible should be interpreted in exactly the same way or to say that because they are not so interpreted the Bible is just a load of crap.


No? Really? ...

I'm fully aware of that fact. The problem lies in how to decide which parts are supposed to be read in which way. I would say that many of the "historical" tales suffer from a very mythological nature, and vice versa. There is always argument about which parts are literal, which are not. Hence the splintering of the original christian faith into various denominations, each with their own interpretation, and their own idea of "heresy." And it still doesnt change the fact that the rest of the book is in normal time. Whether it is a single text or a thousand texts slapped together at random, the problem remains the same. (I'm not even going to get into the various versions and judicious editing which skew the whole thing even further from any original truth.)

Oh, and I meant the originally posted theory was b*llocks, not the whole book. (Though I am naturally dubious of all religious texts. If some of these people were a bit more straightforward and a bit less figurative then maybe we wouldnt have all the problems we do.


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27 Jul 2007, 6:36 pm

Ragtime wrote:
greenblue wrote:
So I question this, if that really means literally an earth day, or millions of years.
I think the original meaning of the creation must have been literal 6 days, this because judaism and early christianity observed the Sabbath (currently judaism still observes the sabbath while most of christians don't) that day it was considered a holy day, that because it was the day God rested after creating everything in 6 days. That tells me that originally it must have been taken as a literal day.


Well, not necessarily -- they could observe the seventh day as a symbol of the time periods in which God created the Earth. And, Genesis and evolution agree on the order in which things came into being.

Now that I think about that, that's rather interesting... If Genesis was made up by someone, they might well have used a human-centric view, and said that man existed before animals...or that everything came into being at the same time. I mean, as long as you're enlisting the powers of an almighty creator in your narrative, you have no need of saying that he created things from least complex to most. It would make him sound more awesome if he started with man, and worked his way down the food chain. For instance, "In the beginning, God created man. ... Man became hungry, so God created plants." That's a logical storyline, and puts man at the center of it all.


And again, not necessarily. Taking Genesis as a work in its own right.. man coming after animals fits just as well, and works well in a "dramatic" sense. Like the final trick in a magicians repertoire, or the epic climax to any number of films. "Save the best til last, and always leave em wanting more..."


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27 Jul 2007, 6:59 pm

Ragtime wrote:
spdjeanne wrote:
Sometimes exactly what the Bible says isn't exactly what it means. For instance, neither of us take the Last Supper literally, whereas many sects of Christianity do, because we see it in its cultural context and see that that scripture does not mean exactly what it says because of its context. If you took this scripture literally, word for word, you would also believe in transubstantiation or consubstantiation. Why does this principle, for you, only apply to the Last Supper, and not to other parts of scripture that are also in a specific cultural context?


I explained it, but you're apparently still missing what "literally" means. And you're not stating exactly to what passage you're referring in the Last Supper. However, my instincts tell me you're alluding to Jesus' phrase, "this is my body", in referrence to the bread.

Once again, there's a difference between taking a text literally, and taking it for its "first impression" meaning. "Literally" includes the intended context. "First impressions" are just random interpretations. People use figures of speech, even when they're clearly expressing a literal truth through that figure of speech. When the map at the mall says, "You are here", do you believe that red spot on the map is literally you? And if so, are you still you? Or has the red spot become you? Perhaps there are two of you, etc, etc, etc.
Neither, then, would the Bible need to explain the obvious representation Jesus was making when refering to the bread as His body -- the very bread which he was holding with his body! The point I'm making... doesn't really need to be made at all, because it's obvious that people using expressions doesn't mean those people aren't specifically and definitely communicating a literal truth, and one which is easily understood by his listeners.

So, yes, as I said before, the Bible means what it says. But, also as I said before, we must often study the historical background surrounding the Bible to find out exactly what it's saying. *Do you see how it still means what it says? We just have to study deeply to find out some of those things. But, indeed, not all. Many commandments in the Bible do not become dated to the point they can't be easily understood, such as "don't lie", "don't steal", "don't commit adultery", and the verse in my signature.



Symbolism is not literal, not even a dot on a map, that is what makes it symbolic or figurative not literal. People often express themselves symbolically especially in literature to convey a message that they believe to be true, but the truth of the message, even if the message can be expressed literally, does not make the story or symbolism itself literally true.

For example, I believe in the truth of the story of the Garden of Eden, but I do not believe that those events literally took place. I believe that the story symbolically describes the way in which people fell away from obedience to God accurately. This truth can be described literally, but the story itself is not literally true, or do you believe in talking serpents?

Obviously the Bible is composed of many different genres of literature; mythology, history, poetry, prophesy, biography, and correspondence to name a few. To take mythology, poetry, or prophesy as literally true would be to miss the point of those writings completely, but that isn't to say that they don't express something true through their symbolism.

If you mean by saying that you take the Bible to be literally true to mean that once you've expressed everything figurative in literal terms then it is all true, then I guess I would agree with you. However, to take the Bible literally, meaning to take every word as it is as the literal truth no interpretation required, I cannot agree with.

I would also suggest that even the parts of the Bible that are meant to be taken literally still need qualification in terms of their cultural context because, culture is a system of symbols. So even if you do extract the literal meaning of a scripture meant to be taken figuratively, the cultural context still applies to that literal meaning because in effect the literal meaning is still symbolic because it is within a specific cultural system of symbols.



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27 Jul 2007, 7:12 pm

Ragtime wrote:

I wasn't referring to the writers of the Bible, just to people in general, and to my "Skeptics" thread.

As far as the motives of the writers of the Bible are concerned, do their writings seem sneaky or underhanded to you? That's what everyone should ask themselves when approach anything in writing. I think it's clear that their main motive, whatever their other flaws are, is to share the truth. Solomon, for instance. He writes about how to be wise in one's life decisions. This could hardly be an underhanded thing to do, for how could it benefit him in some duplicitous way?


Perhaps. But the apostles are a completely different
matter. Here we have men who were founding a new
faith. While they MIGHT have been telling their subjective
truths (and how could it be otherwise - given the contradictions),
there were clear reasons why they would be likely to embellish.

So then, the question comes to - do we believe what these
men have written, or do we treat these writings, made LONG
after the facts, as something akin to urban legends, subject
to intense scrutiny, rejecting what seems unlikely?



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27 Jul 2007, 7:20 pm

Macbeth wrote:
spdjeanne wrote:
Macbeth wrote:
Thinking on what Calandale said, I would dearly like to see the guide to the bible.. the footnotes that tell everyone exactly what is supposed to be figurative, literal, metaphor, and just plain fiction. People seem to be quite clearly set on the idea that water into wine is something that actually happened, but are producing clever and complex explanations as to why other parts are figurative.

Sounds like a right load of b*llocks to me. Biggest flaw I can see with the whole Genesis timing sequence? The rest of the Bible is in "normal time." Why is that one part given in normal time, which is used to (apparently) disguise all that physics about time in higher gravitational fields etc etc?

Why do you think? As the explanation says, the timing of the creation of the universe is reported accurately, rather than in post-creation human terms, and on that scale. The timing of the universe was different while things were being created. Since man didn't yet exist, why should the clock be in comparitively "modern" human terms?
Macbeth wrote:

If we arbitrarily decide that the Genesis timescale is not literal,

It is literal.



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28 Jul 2007, 3:32 pm

Ragtime wrote:
spdjeanne wrote:
I have said many times that I accept the entire Bible and it's authority, but not the idea that it must be interpreted literally.

That's an oxymoron. Not taking it literally means you don't believe it.

spdjeanne wrote:
Taking scripture out of context and taking it literally leads to unnecessary difficulty and misinterpretation.

Well, it seems that you're misusing the word "literally", to mean "the very first thing that pops into your head", which is of course an entirely different principle. "Literally" means that the Bible means exactly what it says, and in-depth, background study is often -- though not always -- required in order to get the full meaning of the text. If you don't take Scripture to mean what it says, then you don't take it to mean anything. It's either fact or fiction, not something in between.


If you replace "the first thing that pops into your head" by "the most obvious interpretation of the exact words", that is closer to the common interpretation of "literally" than yours. Even after your explanation, I find it hard to apply your definition and make it fit with what I would normally consider literal. Let's take two examples.

According to Genesis, humans were the last species to be created and Eve was made from Adam's rib. Does your definition of literal imply that there can't be any species that has originated more recently than humans? If so, do you mean anatomically modern humans? How do homo erectus or Neanderthals fit into Genesis? How would Genesis fit with speciation observed or reproduced in the lab within the last 60 years? What is the literal (by your definition) interpretation of Eve being made from Adam's rib? How does it fit with your previous statement that you would not rule out theistic evolution?

The other example is the story of Onan, whose sin was to "waste his seed". I read that the context was that Onan's brother died without an heir. The tradition in such cases was that the brother of the dead man would sleep with the widow to produce a child that would be considered the dead man's child. Onan must have liked either sexual variety, his sister in law, or both, because he extended opportunity for sex by practising coitus interruptus. He was punished for that.

From the context, I would say Onan's sin was to abuse the custom so he could have more sex with his brother's widow than was necessary to produce a baby. What I would take for a literal interpretation depends on the exact wording, whether it is "wasting seed" or "spilling seed onto the ground". If the sin is wasting, then the obvious interpretation is that sperm is sacred and must only be released when there is a chance of producing a baby. That interpretation would forbid any kind of birth control, including the rhythm method. If the sin is spilling seed onto the ground, that could mean only penetrative sex is allowed, if "ground" is meant to stand for any place outside a vagina. Or it could mean that very specifically spilling onto the ground is a problem, not spilling as such.

You can try to take a poll to see whether the context-based interpretation or one of the word-focussed interpretations would be considered literal by most people. If it is a word-focussed one, then your use of the word literal is more technical than the common use.

Gromit



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29 Jul 2007, 1:11 pm

spdjeanne wrote:
Ragtime wrote:
spdjeanne wrote:
Sometimes exactly what the Bible says isn't exactly what it means. For instance, neither of us take the Last Supper literally, whereas many sects of Christianity do, because we see it in its cultural context and see that that scripture does not mean exactly what it says because of its context. If you took this scripture literally, word for word, you would also believe in transubstantiation or consubstantiation. Why does this principle, for you, only apply to the Last Supper, and not to other parts of scripture that are also in a specific cultural context?


I explained it, but you're apparently still missing what "literally" means. And you're not stating exactly to what passage you're referring in the Last Supper. However, my instincts tell me you're alluding to Jesus' phrase, "this is my body", in referrence to the bread.

Once again, there's a difference between taking a text literally, and taking it for its "first impression" meaning. "Literally" includes the intended context. "First impressions" are just random interpretations. People use figures of speech, even when they're clearly expressing a literal truth through that figure of speech. When the map at the mall says, "You are here", do you believe that red spot on the map is literally you? And if so, are you still you? Or has the red spot become you? Perhaps there are two of you, etc, etc, etc.
Neither, then, would the Bible need to explain the obvious representation Jesus was making when refering to the bread as His body -- the very bread which he was holding with his body! The point I'm making... doesn't really need to be made at all, because it's obvious that people using expressions doesn't mean those people aren't specifically and definitely communicating a literal truth, and one which is easily understood by his listeners.

So, yes, as I said before, the Bible means what it says. But, also as I said before, we must often study the historical background surrounding the Bible to find out exactly what it's saying. *Do you see how it still means what it says? We just have to study deeply to find out some of those things. But, indeed, not all. Many commandments in the Bible do not become dated to the point they can't be easily understood, such as "don't lie", "don't steal", "don't commit adultery", and the verse in my signature.



Symbolism is not literal, not even a dot on a map, that is what makes it symbolic or figurative not literal.

I don't know if you're playing word games, or if you still don't understand what I said. Symbolism is symbolism, even when it expresses a literal meaning. There -- that's the shortest possible way I can explain it.
spdjeanne wrote:
People often express themselves symbolically especially in literature to convey a message that they believe to be true, but the truth of the message, even if the message can be expressed literally, does not make the story or symbolism itself literally true.

Correct!
spdjeanne wrote:
For example, I believe in the truth of the story of the Garden of Eden, but I do not believe that those events literally took place.

Ah, here's where you and I differ. I believe the story took place, because the Bible gives no indication -- nor is one implicit -- that it is making up a story, rather than telling actual events. The story of the Garden of Eden is not surreal, like John's visions in Revelation are. And neither is it announced as a parable, like Jesus often announced his stories were.

So those are my two main citeria for determining parable versus literal:

1. Is the story surreal?

or

2. Is the story announced as a parable?

spdjeanne wrote:
I believe that the story symbolically describes the way in which people fell away from obedience to God accurately. This truth can be described literally, but the story itself is not literally true, or do you believe in talking serpents?

So a talking snake makes the entire story false? That is too hard to believe happened? How about Balaam's mule, in Numbers 22:28: "Then the LORD opened the donkey's mouth, and she said to Balaam, "What have I done to you to make you beat me these three times?"
Also, do you believe in angels -- literally? Do you believe in God -- literally? These are much more difficult things to believe in than a talking snake, so if a talking snake is too difficult to believe, you must not believe in a literal God. And that's the danger I'm indictating.

spdjeanne wrote:
Obviously the Bible is composed of many different genres of literature; mythology, history, poetry, prophesy, biography, and correspondence to name a few. To take mythology, poetry, or prophesy as literally true would be to miss the point of those writings completely, but that isn't to say that they don't express something true through their symbolism.

The difference between your view and mine is that I believe that the truths expressed in the poetry are definite, literal truths. Whereas, you believe we can attribute to them whatever truths and meanings we wish. Such would be to imply that the poetry of the Bible appears nonsensical, which is of course not the case.

Read the Psalms of David -- they convey quite literal concepts ("My strength is dried up like a potsherd, and my tongue sticks to the roof of my mouth; you lay me in the dust of death. Dogs have surrounded me; a band of evil men has encircled me, they have pierced my hands and my feet"), even though they are lyrics to songs he wrote. You can see that not every word in that quotation is literal, yet the meaning is literal, and quite clear. He's using figures of speech in poetry -- such does not open his writings to wider interpretation. When parts of the Bible are labeled "Poetry", that does not meaning random poems. It means dictinct truths expressed in some peotic terms. As such, perhaps the English word "Poetry" is not best used, since many people equate it with fiction.

spdjeanne wrote:
If you mean by saying that you take the Bible to be literally true to mean that once you've expressed everything figurative in literal terms then it is all true, then I guess I would agree with you. However, to take the Bible literally, meaning to take every word as it is as the literal truth no interpretation required, I cannot agree with.

Jeanne, obviously, one doesn't take EVERY WORD of anything they read literally, for it was not meant to be taken as a robot would interpret it. Expressions, figures of speech are thrown into everything of any real length which is written or spoken, all while these communications remain crystal-clear in their meanings. So, the Bible is no different in this respect from a letter you'd write to your friend: Not every word is going to be dictionary-definition #1, even though the letter is clearly understood by your friend -- because your friend knows you, as we know God through the Spirit of Christ within us, and through his Holy Spirit which guides us as we read His Word.
spdjeanne wrote:
I would also suggest that even the parts of the Bible that are meant to be taken literally still need qualification in terms of their cultural context because, culture is a system of symbols. So even if you do extract the literal meaning of a scripture meant to be taken figuratively, the cultural context still applies to that literal meaning because in effect the literal meaning is still symbolic because it is within a specific cultural system of symbols.


This is true of ALL non-modern and/or non-local documents, not just of the Bible. But you're still injecting doubt where it does not belong: in God's Word. You believe error crept in -- unknown to and unprevented by God -- and that we have to be VERY skeptical when we read the Bible. Nope, not at all. We simply need to study it, realizing that it is true, even while our understanding of its truth needs help from God.

The Bible is perfect. Our understanding of it is not.


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29 Jul 2007, 1:41 pm

Here's a less problematic phrasing of the issue: "I believe the Bible is literal", versus the more vague "I take the Bible literally".

The first one addresses the Bible itself, while the second addresses the reader's reading of the Bible -- which could be anything based on the particular reader.

So, would you say: "I believe the Bible is literal" ? You'd answer no. I'd answer yes. That means you believe there is an intrinsic problem with the Bible, in which case you're choosing a different religion than Christianity. Scripture is authoritative, which is an essential Christian concept you reject.



Last edited by Ragtime on 29 Jul 2007, 1:49 pm, edited 1 time in total.

calandale
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29 Jul 2007, 1:44 pm

Which Bible?

Almost every edition
has some sort of agenda
behind it - reflecting beliefs
which the editors/compilers
have. Even mere matters of
word choice can be fairly significant,
as to the impression given.



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29 Jul 2007, 5:01 pm

Ragtime wrote:
Macbeth wrote:
spdjeanne wrote:
Macbeth wrote:
Thinking on what Calandale said, I would dearly like to see the guide to the bible.. the footnotes that tell everyone exactly what is supposed to be figurative, literal, metaphor, and just plain fiction. People seem to be quite clearly set on the idea that water into wine is something that actually happened, but are producing clever and complex explanations as to why other parts are figurative.

Sounds like a right load of b*llocks to me. Biggest flaw I can see with the whole Genesis timing sequence? The rest of the Bible is in "normal time." Why is that one part given in normal time, which is used to (apparently) disguise all that physics about time in higher gravitational fields etc etc?

Why do you think? As the explanation says, the timing of the creation of the universe is reported accurately, rather than in post-creation human terms, and on that scale. The timing of the universe was different while things were being created. Since man didn't yet exist, why should the clock be in comparitively "modern" human terms?
Macbeth wrote:

If we arbitrarily decide that the Genesis timescale is not literal,

It is literal.

what basis do you have for assuming that it is not on the same scale? such things certainly were not considered whilst making the bible or they would have had a disclaimer


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29 Jul 2007, 5:03 pm

Gromit wrote:
Ragtime wrote:
spdjeanne wrote:
I have said many times that I accept the entire Bible and it's authority, but not the idea that it must be interpreted literally.

That's an oxymoron. Not taking it literally means you don't believe it.

spdjeanne wrote:
Taking scripture out of context and taking it literally leads to unnecessary difficulty and misinterpretation.

Well, it seems that you're misusing the word "literally", to mean "the very first thing that pops into your head", which is of course an entirely different principle. "Literally" means that the Bible means exactly what it says, and in-depth, background study is often -- though not always -- required in order to get the full meaning of the text. If you don't take Scripture to mean what it says, then you don't take it to mean anything. It's either fact or fiction, not something in between.


If you replace "the first thing that pops into your head" by "the most obvious interpretation of the exact words", that is closer to the common interpretation of "literally" than yours. Even after your explanation, I find it hard to apply your definition and make it fit with what I would normally consider literal. Let's take two examples.

According to Genesis, humans were the last species to be created and Eve was made from Adam's rib. Does your definition of literal imply that there can't be any species that has originated more recently than humans? If so, do you mean anatomically modern humans? How do homo erectus or Neanderthals fit into Genesis? How would Genesis fit with speciation observed or reproduced in the lab within the last 60 years? What is the literal (by your definition) interpretation of Eve being made from Adam's rib? How does it fit with your previous statement that you would not rule out theistic evolution?

The other example is the story of Onan, whose sin was to "waste his seed". I read that the context was that Onan's brother died without an heir. The tradition in such cases was that the brother of the dead man would sleep with the widow to produce a child that would be considered the dead man's child. Onan must have liked either sexual variety, his sister in law, or both, because he extended opportunity for sex by practising coitus interruptus. He was punished for that.

From the context, I would say Onan's sin was to abuse the custom so he could have more sex with his brother's widow than was necessary to produce a baby. What I would take for a literal interpretation depends on the exact wording, whether it is "wasting seed" or "spilling seed onto the ground". If the sin is wasting, then the obvious interpretation is that sperm is sacred and must only be released when there is a chance of producing a baby. That interpretation would forbid any kind of birth control, including the rhythm method. If the sin is spilling seed onto the ground, that could mean only penetrative sex is allowed, if "ground" is meant to stand for any place outside a vagina. Or it could mean that very specifically spilling onto the ground is a problem, not spilling as such.

You can try to take a poll to see whether the context-based interpretation or one of the word-focussed interpretations would be considered literal by most people. If it is a word-focussed one, then your use of the word literal is more technical than the common use.

Gromit


i dont think ragtime believes in the fossil record... which leads you to the trickster god argument...... :roll:


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29 Jul 2007, 5:08 pm

calandale wrote:
Which Bible?

Almost every edition
has some sort of agenda
behind it - reflecting beliefs
which the editors/compilers
have. Even mere matters of
word choice can be fairly significant,
as to the impression given.


and there are whole books which have been left out of the bible... not because the bible has a word limit... but because there were stories written of jesus and other types of things that were not conducive to portraying this streamlined system of beliefs...

was bad enough jesus was hanging with hookers and such and they had to make a parable (or w/e) out of it (aka-the stoning story)...

too much processing for my spirituality... i prefer to mainline


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29 Jul 2007, 6:54 pm

Sedaka wrote:
what basis do you have for assuming that it is not on the same scale?


Um... How 'bout science? You of all people should know that. The evidence shows a lot of time has passed since the universe came into being. It would be illogical to dismiss that.

Sedaka wrote:
such things certainly were not considered whilst making the bible or they would have had a disclaimer

Scripture is God-breathed, which means that it was dictated. God told men concepts to write down, sometimes word-for-word, but both ways, they were instructed by God to write down what He gave them, even when they didn't understand it, as Peter mentions in his first epistle. So, yes, it's easily possible that God told Moses to write the six-day account, without Moses knowing of time dilation.



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29 Jul 2007, 7:45 pm

Sedaka wrote:

If you replace "the first thing that pops into your head" by "the most obvious interpretation of the exact words", that is closer to the common interpretation of "literally" than yours.

What's the difference?
Sedaka wrote:
I find it hard to apply your definition and make it fit with what I would normally consider literal. Let's take two examples.

According to Genesis, humans were the last species to be created and Eve was made from Adam's rib. Does your definition of literal imply that there can't be any species that has originated more recently than humans? If so, do you mean anatomically modern humans? How do homo erectus or Neanderthals fit into Genesis?
First, show me some neanderthals. Complete skeletons.

Sedaka wrote:
How does Genesis fit with speciation observed or reproduced in the lab within the last 60 years?

I haven't been in the lab for the last sixty years, so you'd have to enlighten me.
Sedaka wrote:
What is the literal (by your definition) interpretation of Eve being made from Adam's rib? How does it fit with your previous statement that you would not rule out theistic evolution?

Well, Adam's rib evolved, of course, and then Eve was "cloned-with-modifications" from that rib.
Sedaka wrote:
The other example is the story of Onan, whose sin was to "waste his seed". I read that the context was that Onan's brother died without an heir. The tradition in such cases was that the brother of the dead man would sleep with the widow to produce a child that would be considered the dead man's child. Onan must have liked either sexual variety, his sister in law, or both, because he extended opportunity for sex by practising coitus interruptus. He was punished for that.

He did not "go in unto her". He jacked off.
Sedaka wrote:
From the context, I would say Onan's sin was to abuse the custom so he could have more sex with his brother's widow than was necessary to produce a baby. What I would take for a literal interpretation depends on the exact wording, whether it is "wasting seed" or "spilling seed onto the ground". If the sin is wasting, then the obvious interpretation is that sperm is sacred and must only be released when there is a chance of producing a baby. That interpretation would forbid any kind of birth control, including the rhythm method. If the sin is spilling seed onto the ground, that could mean only penetrative sex is allowed, if "ground" is meant to stand for any place outside a vagina. Or it could mean that very specifically spilling onto the ground is a problem, not spilling as such.

You've started from the incorrect supposition that he had sex with his brother's widow.



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29 Jul 2007, 7:50 pm

Ragtime wrote:
Sedaka wrote:
what basis do you have for assuming that it is not on the same scale?


Um... How 'bout science? You of all people should know that. The evidence shows a lot of time has passed since the universe came into being. It would be illogical to dismiss that.


you cannot pick what science you want to apply to literal interpretations of the bible...

if you want to interpret literally AND apply science... i dont think you're gonna have many followers.


they didnt even know the world was round... let alone being able to fathom that there may be leeway to the parameters of time

so this is a case where i would believe a literal translation... though not that it has any great foresight hidden within the omnipotent knowledge of god

edit: and i meant to say "what basis FROM THE BIBLE do you have for assuming that it is not on the same scale?" and clearly, they didnt have enough comprehension to consider such thoughts... and if god knew... well he certainly kept his thoughts to himself


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29 Jul 2007, 7:54 pm

Ragtime wrote:
Sedaka wrote:

If you replace "the first thing that pops into your head" by "the most obvious interpretation of the exact words", that is closer to the common interpretation of "literally" than yours.

What's the difference?
Sedaka wrote:
I find it hard to apply your definition and make it fit with what I would normally consider literal. Let's take two examples.

According to Genesis, humans were the last species to be created and Eve was made from Adam's rib. Does your definition of literal imply that there can't be any species that has originated more recently than humans? If so, do you mean anatomically modern humans? How do homo erectus or Neanderthals fit into Genesis?
First, show me some neanderthals. Complete skeletons.

Sedaka wrote:
How does Genesis fit with speciation observed or reproduced in the lab within the last 60 years?

I haven't been in the lab for the last sixty years, so you'd have to enlighten me.
Sedaka wrote:
What is the literal (by your definition) interpretation of Eve being made from Adam's rib? How does it fit with your previous statement that you would not rule out theistic evolution?

Well, Adam's rib evolved, of course, and then Eve was "cloned-with-modifications" from that rib.
Sedaka wrote:
The other example is the story of Onan, whose sin was to "waste his seed". I read that the context was that Onan's brother died without an heir. The tradition in such cases was that the brother of the dead man would sleep with the widow to produce a child that would be considered the dead man's child. Onan must have liked either sexual variety, his sister in law, or both, because he extended opportunity for sex by practising coitus interruptus. He was punished for that.

He did not "go in unto her". He jacked off.
Sedaka wrote:
From the context, I would say Onan's sin was to abuse the custom so he could have more sex with his brother's widow than was necessary to produce a baby. What I would take for a literal interpretation depends on the exact wording, whether it is "wasting seed" or "spilling seed onto the ground". If the sin is wasting, then the obvious interpretation is that sperm is sacred and must only be released when there is a chance of producing a baby. That interpretation would forbid any kind of birth control, including the rhythm method. If the sin is spilling seed onto the ground, that could mean only penetrative sex is allowed, if "ground" is meant to stand for any place outside a vagina. Or it could mean that very specifically spilling onto the ground is a problem, not spilling as such.

You've started from the incorrect supposition that he had sex with his brother's widow.


what kind of trickery is this? i didnt say any of that!! !!

i am now forced to reconsider anything you've ever quoted in any arguments previously... as well as your scripture quoting

:wink:


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