kxmode wrote:
The severed lack of answers to this topic's question from the Bible troubles me. Allow me to answer the question from the definitive source.
Luke 1:26-31 (The Jerusalem Bible from 1966) reports that it was to “a virgin” whose name was Mary that the angel Gabriel carried the news: “You are to conceive and bear a son, and you must name him Jesus.” At this, verse 34 states, “Mary said to the angel, ‘But how can this come about, since I am a virgin [“I do not know man: i.e., as husband,” The 1970 New American Bible, Saint Joseph Edition footnote; “I am having no intercourse with a man,” New World Translation of the Holy Scriptures, 1984 edition]?’” Matthew 1:22-25 (The Jerusalem Bible from 1966) adds: “Now all this took place to fulfill the words spoken by the Lord through the prophet: The virgin will conceive and give birth to a son and they will call him Immanuel, a name which means ‘God-is-with-us’. When Joseph woke up he did what the angel of the Lord had told him to do: he took his wife to his home and, though he had not had intercourse with her, she gave birth to a son; and he named him Jesus.”
Is this reasonable? Surely it was not impossible for the Creator, who designed the human reproductive organs, to bring about the fertilization of an egg cell in the womb of Mary by supernatural means. Marvelously, Jehovah transferred the life-force and the personality pattern of his firstborn heavenly Son to the womb of Mary. God’s own active force, his holy spirit, safeguarded the development of the child in Mary’s womb so that what was born was a perfect human.—Luke 1:35; John 17:5.
If God's the father, then doesn't that mean that he knocked her up?
19 Feb 2011, 4:43 pm
