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Do you believe the Bible is Divinely inspired
Yes; it is the literal word of God 2%  2%  [ 1 ]
No; it is a complete and utter fabrication 17%  17%  [ 7 ]
Yes; it is divinely inspired but interpreted by humans and therefore imperfect 10%  10%  [ 4 ]
Yes; but much has been lost in translation and interference but in essence it is true 14%  14%  [ 6 ]
No; it is just a vague and loose record of Middle Eastern history with some interesting embellishments 57%  57%  [ 24 ]
Total votes : 42

Awesomelyglorious
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22 Jan 2009, 4:14 pm

Dussel wrote:
No: A lot of the philosophy is based on the reaction to scientific knowledge. The epistemology of Immanuel Kant, as a very strong example, is a direct reaction to Newton's physic.

Umm, ok, and you can see philosophy interacting with science based upon the experimental philosophy movement, however, my point is not refuted by your point. The epistemology of Kant, as ruveyn said, really seems more influenced by Hume, and traditionally Hume gets the credit for causing Kant to think.

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Sir Frances Bacon correctly stated "there are Idols which have immigrated into men's minds from the various dogmas of philosophies" (Novum Organum, XLIV). He further says, also correctly, that those "idols" "all of which must be renounced and put away with a fixed and solemn determination, and the understanding thoroughly freed and cleansed; the entrance into the kingdom of man, founded on the sciences" (dito, LXVIII).

Correctly is the subject of the debate, and frankly, I don't have to be a disciple of Bacon to have a stance. Unless Bacon is the new church, or some theologian, then he can be dissented with.

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To declare such a "distinction between phenomenal anger and biological process" declare that some exist outside the biological process. If this statement is made, the next question must be, how this could be measured? How this could be qualified and quantified? A first hand experience of anger is also just a process of our neuron activity? So what shall be so special on this?

Well, no. It does not assert that. But it is not logically impossible for the 2 to be separated, as noted by the notion of philosophical zombies. If this statement is made, there is no need to measure, or quantify, as the knowledge of the former is prior to the knowledge of the latter. We know about anger before we can quantify OR measure. A first-hand experience is a result of neuron activity perhaps, but it isn't the same thing as neuron activity, and there is the issue. What we have is a mental process, and while mental processes and physical processes can be connected, it seems questionable to say that they are exactly the same, as they have very different characteristics. Mental processes, for instance, refer to non-material things so often that claiming that they are the same as physical processes seems questionable, and claiming that the mental process is fake is almost like saying that you do not exist.

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The instrument of measuring anger first-hand are our neurons, when other parts of the brains are recognizing that something is going on. There no need to introduce something outside the material world to explain this.

No, the instrument of measuring our anger first-hand is our perception and self-reflection. You can say that this is a result of neurons, but to say that this *is* neurons is an odd thing to say, because neurons are physical cells, but the perceptions are not physical or cells. In any case, there is a reason to say that there are non-material things, because we directly experience them, but there is little reason to say that these exist independently of the material things.

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The success of logic is measurable. If a e.g. the constructor of bridge made a wrong logic reason the result is well measurable, it even give a headline in the newspaper.

No, because that itself depends logic. There is no measurement without a logical process. Naive empiricism is usually not much considered given the need for the interpretation/logical analysis of data.

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The logic of our brain has an clear material basis, like the logic of a computer chip - the brain is just more complex. Our logic is based on the rules of physics. when our brain says that a issue could be either true or false it based on material structure of our brains that one protein can connect to an other - or even not.

Umm.... that says nothing about logic. If the logic of our brain has a clear material basis, then what says that the logic of our brain is correct? Can our epistemology survive if there is a possibility that the logic of our brain is fundamentally wrong? I'd say that your response says that there is no necessary connection of our brain's logic to correctness, and I would argue that based upon our own logic, our logic is untrustworthy.



merrymadscientist
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22 Jan 2009, 4:47 pm

ruveyn wrote:
Physical science has its origins in our experience. Physics is NOT deduced a priori from self evident principles. It is the result of abstracting and idealizing experiences known through our natural senses.

ruveyn


You are right. And our experiences are not infallable and could be far from reality. However, I think that they are all we have - there are NO self evident principles, except perhaps that 'something' must exist for us to have this experience - even that can be interpreted many ways (Is it a physical universe that exists, or our minds, or God or another mind or something else I havent thought of yet?). And even the existence of our 'minds' (in whichever form this may be) is dependent upon our natural senses - I think without any input at all from senses, the mind would not develop to start with.



Shiggily
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22 Jan 2009, 6:37 pm

DentArthurDent wrote:
Shiggily wrote:

I wasn't talking about religion. It was an odd comment. Like you have a hard time accepting the fallibility of science so you have to lash out at some other belief so you feel more justified in believing what you do. I could be wrong about that, it is just an odd pattern of human behavior... you could have a completely different reason for the comment you made.

I have no problem with science, I like it, I study it, I almost majored in it. I still will major in it. I don't even have a problem with science being fallible. Everything humanity know is fallible. Even math. I just don't like the assumption that science is infallible. Or the confusion between human perception and interpretation and facts. I find that it leads science down a problematic path (dogmatic) and I like science too much to see is become dogmatic.


Of course science is not infallible, in this instance science is being held up as infallible in a religious debate as if that disproves scientific thoughts on religion. Unlike the god hypothesis which never holds itself to account, science must continually strive to disprove itself to attain the truth


I see what you are trying to say.


my comment was intended to be quasi-independent of the debate. not about religion or an attempt to prove religion. Just because we prove science faulty does not mean we prove religion correct. It was just about science.


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Dussel
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23 Jan 2009, 5:32 am

ruveyn wrote:
Kant's -Critique of Pure Reason- was a reaction to the skepticism of David Hume. The only way Kant could dodge Hume was to invent the bogus notion of the synthetic a priori judgment guaranteed to be true. There is no such thing. All sure fire true things are analytic tautologies. Any statement with real world meaning is not guaranteed to be true. Synthetic judgments are provisional and subject to revision.

Kant's assertion that the laws (or axioms) of Newtonian physics are synthetic a priori judgments is just plain wrong. Similarly Kant's assertion that the axioms of Euclidean Geometry are true a prior synthetic judgments is also wrong. We know this since there are consistent non-Euclidean geometries.

In a word, Kant's approach has been thoroughly falsified.


Awesomelyglorious wrote:
Umm, ok, and you can see philosophy interacting with science based upon the experimental philosophy movement, however, my point is not refuted by your point. The epistemology of Kant, as ruveyn said, really seems more influenced by Hume, and traditionally Hume gets the credit for causing Kant to think.


Kant's problem was to defend Netwon's physics against Hume's scepticisms. Because Newton's physics is not anly longe our valid model of the world, Kant's epistemology is in wide areas outdated. But Kant's epistemology did not outdated because of logical flaws, but physics outed Kant. Kant's ideas are consistent within the context of scientific knowledge of his time.

Awesomelyglorious wrote:
dussel wrote:
Sir Frances Bacon correctly stated "there are Idols which have immigrated into men's minds from the various dogmas of philosophies" (Novum Organum, XLIV). He further says, also correctly, that those "idols" "all of which must be renounced and put away with a fixed and solemn determination, and the understanding thoroughly freed and cleansed; the entrance into the kingdom of man, founded on the sciences" (dito, LXVIII).

Correctly is the subject of the debate, and frankly, I don't have to be a disciple of Bacon to have a stance. Unless Bacon is the new church, or some theologian, then he can be dissented with.


He is not a "new church", but I quoted him, because he formulated first the scientific method clearly and rigid. This method seems to be right, because the use this method result in the explosion of knowledge and progress for humanity since.

The results prove the correctness of this approach.

Awesomelyglorious wrote:
A first-hand experience is a result of neuron activity perhaps, but it isn't the same thing as neuron activity, and there is the issue. What we have is a mental process, and while mental processes and physical processes can be connected, it seems questionable to say that they are exactly the same, as they have very different characteristics. Mental processes, for instance, refer to non-material things so often that claiming that they are the same as physical processes seems questionable, and claiming that the mental process is fake is almost like saying that you do not exist.


There no such a think like a "mental process" outside the physical process of changed states of neurons in our brain. So long there no hind to such a process, there no need to introduce anything separated from the material world. So why we should introduce such a notion?

Awesomelyglorious wrote:
dussel wrote:
The instrument of measuring anger first-hand are our neurons, when other parts of the brains are recognizing that something is going on. There no need to introduce something outside the material world to explain this.

No, the instrument of measuring our anger first-hand is our perception and self-reflection.


Our perception and self reflection are just interactions neuron - nothing more. So those switches in our brain are the basis of what we are.

Awesomelyglorious wrote:
dussel wrote:
The logic of our brain has an clear material basis, like the logic of a computer chip - the brain is just more complex. Our logic is based on the rules of physics. when our brain says that a issue could be either true or false it based on material structure of our brains that one protein can connect to an other - or even not.

Umm.... that says nothing about logic.


It say a lot about logic: Because our brains, how produce this logic are the products of the same material world we describe with our logic. Therefore it would surprising if the logic would not express the interaction of the material world.

Awesomelyglorious wrote:
If the logic of our brain has a clear material basis, then what says that the logic of our brain is correct? Can our epistemology survive if there is a possibility that the logic of our brain is fundamentally wrong?


Our epistemology seems to be quite correct, because we survive. If our logic would not reflect to very high degree the material world, we could not make prediction and therefore we would fail in our struggle for survival very soon.



Awesomelyglorious
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23 Jan 2009, 11:16 am

Dussel wrote:
Kant's problem was to defend Netwon's physics against Hume's scepticisms. Because Newton's physics is not anly longe our valid model of the world, Kant's epistemology is in wide areas outdated. But Kant's epistemology did not outdated because of logical flaws, but physics outed Kant. Kant's ideas are consistent within the context of scientific knowledge of his time.

I actually like Hume's skepticisms for the most part.

Quote:
He is not a "new church", but I quoted him, because he formulated first the scientific method clearly and rigid. This method seems to be right, because the use this method result in the explosion of knowledge and progress for humanity since.

The results prove the correctness of this approach.

Well, ok, influential figure, but still, this method is not a method for knowing about all things, but rather knowing about the natural world. I don't think anyone has denied the application of science to the natural world, but even in things closely connected to the natural world, there are questions that are non-natural, about things non-material.

In any case, if the results prove the correctness of something, then I could argue that same point about religious experience or a number of other things that people do that they perceive to have good results, as it certainly seems that the good results criterion can justify almost any action, including placebos, without regard for any literal truth.

Quote:
There no such a think like a "mental process" outside the physical process of changed states of neurons in our brain. So long there no hind to such a process, there no need to introduce anything separated from the material world. So why we should introduce such a notion?

Well, the issue is really logical sameness, they aren't the same. A hyperlink isn't the same as a grouping of electrons, and a computer program isn't the same as a grouping of chips, there is a difference between reductionism and greedy reductionism. To be honest, I don't think I am introducing some full-blown dualism where we are controlled through the pineal gland, but rather a recognition that self-perception is not best understood as neurons, but rather better understood as self-perception. There is an argument out there, that if there was a scientist who studied everything about neuroscience, perception, and electro-magnetic waves but lived in a black and white room their entire life, that if one accepts that her seeing the color yellow is a new bit of knowledge, they accept a variant of dualism. The idea being that if just the perception of the color yellow is new knowledge, then immaterial perceptions are knowledge, and thus immaterial things must exist. To me, it seems clear that seeing the color yellow is a new bit of knowledge, and that feeling anger or other emotions constitute new bits of knowledge as well, even if one reads a lot about them.

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Our perception and self reflection are just interactions neuron - nothing more. So those switches in our brain are the basis of what we are.

Our perception and self reflection are also immaterial qualities. Whether or not neurons are involved is meaningless, the perception is immaterial. I perceive immaterial things, and I bet you do too, you have not refuted their existence, only pointed to their emergence, which is not a disproof at all. Therefore, it seems to be that if we take our own perceptions as valid(which we generally do in all other instances) then immaterial things exist, these may be dependent upon physical processes, but arbitrarily saying that perceptions are less valid in certain instances seems an epistemic inconsistency.

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It say a lot about logic: Because our brains, how produce this logic are the products of the same material world we describe with our logic. Therefore it would surprising if the logic would not express the interaction of the material world.

No, it really doesn't. It wouldn't be surprising no matter what the conclusion was. I mean, given that there are millions of material things that do not explain the interaction of the material world, it seems odd that our logic would suddenly be so privileged.

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Our epistemology seems to be quite correct, because we survive. If our logic would not reflect to very high degree the material world, we could not make prediction and therefore we would fail in our struggle for survival very soon.

Dussel, your logic tells you that, but the issue is that I claim that it is already untrustworthy by it's own standards. Can you, without invoking logic, prove that logic is trustworthy? And if you can only prove it's trustworthiness through logic, then don't you have an inconsistency in a principled pursuit of truth, as you just have circularity.



ruveyn
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23 Jan 2009, 11:20 am

Our logic is right often enough to help us survive.

Perfection is an illusion and the Best is the enemy of the Good Enough.

ruveyn



Awesomelyglorious
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23 Jan 2009, 7:23 pm

ruveyn wrote:
Our logic is right often enough to help us survive.

Perfection is an illusion and the Best is the enemy of the Good Enough.

ruveyn

Well, a lot of effective enough for survival, in any case, if we are only concerned about surviving, then there is no reason to rethink the views that were sufficient in the past.



pgd
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14 Nov 2010, 5:20 pm

DentArthurDent posted (in part): Do you believe that the bible is divinely inspired.
---
Tend to view the Bible as a most unusual book (collection) of inspired stories. Tend to view some translations of the Bible as being a little more inspirational than others. Tend to view several translations of the Bible as being translations which appear to be well done with the hope that the translations appear to be divinely inspired. What makes the Bible (to me) quite different is that it invents the word - God - and that invention of the word God (to me) is divine inspiration/fits my definition of how the two words - divine inspiration - can be defined.