sinsboldly wrote:
My whole point is that if the woman, who is a sexual being, does not have inclinations to contain her sexuality within the closely defined terms of Paul, then she is not equal in the promise of baptism.
Men are sexual beings as well, and would fall under the exact same limitations. You might not approve of the limitations, but that's a different argument.
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I am not talking about equality BETWEEN relationships. I am saying that Paul's idea of what constitutes equality by baptism is only if those people remain celebate after baptism. Jews, Greeks, slaves or free, there is neither male nor female, for you are all one in Christ Jesus.
I don't see where you get the celibacy condition from.
Twice in this post, you grouped the Jew/Greek and slave/free pairs together and left the male/female pair separate. All three pairs are treated the same in this verse. (I don't know if you meant that to be part of your argument or if it was coincidental.)
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But the moment one experiences their (Jews, Greeks, slaves or free) sexuality, they are no longer equal, but subject to gender roles.
I don't see how gender roles are incompatible with equality.
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"A dead thing can go with the stream, but only a living thing can go against it." --G. K. Chesterton