Marvel Comics To Introduce Muslim Superhero

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cyberdad
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12 Nov 2013, 10:11 pm

Kraichgauer wrote:
puddingmouse wrote:
I think this is really cool. Mainly because she's a Pakistani-American teenage girl and as someone who teaches many girls from a similar background (Pakistani-British) I find it cool that the lives of these girls are being acknowledged in a non-stereotypical way. The Muslim thing is just incidental for me and happens to go along with being from a Pakistani family.


To be sure, America just isn't made up of white Christian guys anymore, and our superheroes should reflect that.

If Batman, Superman and Spiderman were around in 2013 they would be deployed to keep white neighborhoods safe like George Zimmerman.



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13 Nov 2013, 12:59 am

JSBACHlover wrote:
In pragmatic matters, I'm a big admirer of Epicurus. I don't believe in his take on God, but I think his ideal for living is pretty close to what I've always wanted.


Hmm... That's interesting. I always thought the Stoics were a lot more "Christian" than the Epicureans (who can tend toward hedonism) in their goals for life. But, like I said before, it is hard to tell the schools apart at a practical level. Seneca freely borrowed from the Epicureans in his Epistles.

Speaking of Seneca, he tends to have a very "Christian" concept of God....


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13 Nov 2013, 9:38 am

naturalplastic wrote:
you're all a bunch of species-ist!

Where are the fans of 'Wonder Warthog'?

Made me spill me tea :lol:



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13 Nov 2013, 10:15 am

GoonSquad wrote:
JSBACHlover wrote:
In pragmatic matters, I'm a big admirer of Epicurus. I don't believe in his take on God, but I think his ideal for living is pretty close to what I've always wanted.


Hmm... That's interesting. I always thought the Stoics were a lot more "Christian" than the Epicureans (who can tend toward hedonism) in their goals for life. But, like I said before, it is hard to tell the schools apart at a practical level. Seneca freely borrowed from the Epicureans in his Epistles.

Speaking of Seneca, he tends to have a very "Christian" concept of God....


I think you are right that Christians, and particularly Seneca, had a worldview very compatible with Christianity. Leaving aside divine inspiration, I have found arguments that Christianity is a synthesis of Jewish Old Testament and Greek philosophy, along with some unique elements, to be particularly compelling. St. Paul, who was author of much of the New Testament, was a very educated man. And at the time, being educated meant understanding the Greek philosophers.

I also agree that the Epicureans were less religious than other philosophies, though not necessarily more hedonistic. During the Enlightenment, Stoicism tended to appeal to philosophes who retained some theistic beliefs, while Plutarch and Epicurus were championed by the atheists.

I say this as one who is very fond of the Stoics.



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13 Nov 2013, 10:52 am

Thelibrarian wrote:
GoonSquad wrote:
JSBACHlover wrote:
In pragmatic matters, I'm a big admirer of Epicurus. I don't believe in his take on God, but I think his ideal for living is pretty close to what I've always wanted.


Hmm... That's interesting. I always thought the Stoics were a lot more "Christian" than the Epicureans (who can tend toward hedonism) in their goals for life. But, like I said before, it is hard to tell the schools apart at a practical level. Seneca freely borrowed from the Epicureans in his Epistles.

Speaking of Seneca, he tends to have a very "Christian" concept of God....


I think you are right that Christians, and particularly Seneca, had a worldview very compatible with Christianity. Leaving aside divine inspiration, I have found arguments that Christianity is a synthesis of Jewish Old Testament and Greek philosophy, along with some unique elements, to be particularly compelling. St. Paul, who was author of much of the New Testament, was a very educated man. And at the time, being educated meant understanding the Greek philosophers.

I also agree that the Epicureans were less religious than other philosophies, though not necessarily more hedonistic. During the Enlightenment, Stoicism tended to appeal to philosophes who retained some theistic beliefs, while Plutarch and Epicurus were championed by the atheists.

I say this as one who is very fond of the Stoics.


To be sure, Greek philosophy has had a tremendous influence on Christianity. My pastor has told me he personally believes that Greek element might be beneficial to drop.


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Thelibrarian
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13 Nov 2013, 11:06 am

To be sure, Greek philosophy has had a tremendous influence on Christianity. My pastor has told me he personally believes that Greek element might be beneficial to drop.

Bill, the image your post evokes is your pastor beginning the editing process on the Bible.

It sounds as if your pastor is treating religion more like philosophy in that philosophy begs us to question everything whereas religion relies on authority. Nobody, no matter how good or holy they are, will ever come up with anything that exceeds the authority of the Bible--or in the Catholic Church, tradition (I await any corrections and elaborations from our resident expert on Catholic theology).

Nor is this an attack on philosophy. One of the reason the West overtook the Orient is that the Chinese were stuck in something of a time warp. For them, being a good philosopher meant treating their masters as authorities not to be questioned. The best Chinese scholar was the one who mastered the classics rather than improve on them.

In the West, since the time of the Greeks, philosophy has been about doing better than one's teacher. The result has been steady innovation rather than the stasis that characterized Chinese philosophy.

Ironically, progressive liberalism has tended more toward the Chinese model than towards the traditional Western model of improving upon past masters. Freud is a prime example. Within the realm of psychoanalysis, Freud is the recognized master, and no other psychoanalyst can improve on his work. As such, psychoanalysis is based upon arguments from authority, much the same as Christianity. It is the same with modern PC. In Europe, questioning the tenets of PC is likely to land one in legal peril, while here it can cost one his job and result in social ostracism.

Bach mentioned the Frankfurt School in an earlier post. Part of this group's perversion of all values has been to make politics something based on authority and religion based upon reason. It is perversion on stilts.

I would certainly accord to your preacher the right to say and believe anything he wants. But removing the Greek influence from Christianity means the end result is no longer Christianity, but something else. Since words have meaning, I would not call anybody who does this kind of thing a Christian.



Last edited by Thelibrarian on 13 Nov 2013, 12:09 pm, edited 3 times in total.

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13 Nov 2013, 11:08 am

naturalplastic wrote:
Thats what I suspected- that this character was 'ethnically/culturally' muslim, and not some fervently religious muslim- a person who happened to be of somekind west asian/south asian ethnic background, and not some character who faced east ever two picture frames - and prosyletized Islam to the kiddies reading the comic book ( like it sounds like in the title of the thread).


If you mean 'cultural Muslim', I can't see a problem with that at all.



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13 Nov 2013, 11:27 am

Thelibrarian wrote:
To be sure, Greek philosophy has had a tremendous influence on Christianity. My pastor has told me he personally believes that Greek element might be beneficial to drop.

Bill, the image your post evokes is your pastor beginning the editing process on the Bible.

It sounds as if your pastor is treating religion more like philosophy in that philosophy begs us to question everything whereas religion relies on authority. Nobody, no matter how good or holy they are, will ever come up with anything that exceeds the authority of the Bible--or in the Catholic Church, tradition (I await any corrections and elaborations from our resident expert on Catholic theology).

Nor is this an attack on philosophy. One of the reason the West overtook the Orient is that the Chinese were stuck in something of a time warp. For them, being a good philosopher meant treating their masters as authorities not to be questioned. The best Chinese scholar was the one who mastered the classics rather than improve on them.

In the West, since the time of the Greeks, philosophy has been about doing better than one's teacher. The result has been steady innovation rather than the stasis that characterized Chinese philosophy.

Ironically, progressive liberalism has tended more toward the Chinese model than towards the traditional Western model of improving upon past masters. Freud is a prime example. Within the realm of psychoanalysis, Freud is the recognized master, and no other psychoanalyst can improve on his work. As such, psychoanalysis is based upon arguments from authority, much the same as Christianity. It is the same with modern PC. In Europe, questioning the tenets of PC is likely to land one in legal peril, while here it can cost one his job and result in social ostracism.

Bach mentioned the Frankfurt School in an earlier post. Part of this group's perversion of all values has been to make politics something based on authority and religion based upon reason. It is perversion on stilts.

I would certainly accord to your preacher the right to say and believe anything he wants. But removing the Greek influence from Christianity means the end result is no longer Christianity, but something else. Since words have meaning, I would not call anybody who does this kind of thing a Christian.


Untrue. He suggested the Greek influence, coming from a pagan culture, lacks the true connection to the Word that Judaic culture did. Trust me, my pastor is very conservative on theological matters. He is hardly the only one in line with this way of thinking, as it was popular at the very beginning of the Protestant Reformation. That's not to say that my Pastor believes all Greek studies in seminaries should end - far from it, as the oldest and most reliable books of the New Testament were written in Greek, the number one linguistic influence in the east end of the Mediterranean at Christ's time.


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13 Nov 2013, 4:15 pm

Fortunately, I actually had a productive day. Which means I can sit down to my favorite website and respond to friends like you on matters which actually require my highly connected neurons to start firing, which feels very good. I see an interesting argument taking place above me. Please allow me to introduce what I have learned in my years in seminary.

I'll just call it the "Hebrew-Greek thing": One of the most surprising things I learned in seminary was that Greek thought did NOT influence Hebraic and New Testament thought in the way most people assume. RATHER, when the Hebrews came in contact with Greek thought, their texts responded to the Greek influx by reaffirming the Hebraic worldview, but using Greek words to reveal the distinction.

So this: Gr + H = (GrH) did not happen,
but rather this: Gr + H --> (H)=/=(Gr)

You can read Plotinus into the Trinity, Plato or some Stoic into St. Paul, etc.. But the stuff of Scripture is 100% Hebrew in its integrity. (I know I'll be challenged on that - after all, the language of the NT is Greek! Yes, but the way to interpret each Greek word is to use the LXX to find the equivalent Hebrew word. The Gospel writers were thinking in Hebrew.)

Now, once you get to the Church Fathers, and later to the great Schoolmen (like my favorite, Thomas) it's another matter. In those instances, these great minds would use Greek systems of thought as a skeleton, and then alter that skeleton - often in very profound ways so that the Christian mystery would "fit" into them. For example, Thomas uses Aristotle's four causes. But whereas for Aristotle the final cause is the most perfect (because it generates form), for Thomas it is the efficient cause (because it generates being). Aristotle does not allow for infinitude of any kinds except as a potency. Thomas allows for infinitude as an actuality, as a necessary primary cause.

So, was there a Greek and Roman influence on Christianity? Well, yes of course. Just not in the way that most people think. The Greek influence was something like a virus, which helped the Hebrew core of the message of the Gospel to gain new strength and resistance to systems purely grounded in the world.



Last edited by JSBACHlover on 13 Nov 2013, 4:22 pm, edited 1 time in total.

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13 Nov 2013, 4:20 pm

Kraichgauer wrote:
Thelibrarian wrote:
To be sure, Greek philosophy has had a tremendous influence on Christianity. My pastor has told me he personally believes that Greek element might be beneficial to drop.

Bill, the image your post evokes is your pastor beginning the editing process on the Bible.

It sounds as if your pastor is treating religion more like philosophy in that philosophy begs us to question everything whereas religion relies on authority. Nobody, no matter how good or holy they are, will ever come up with anything that exceeds the authority of the Bible--or in the Catholic Church, tradition (I await any corrections and elaborations from our resident expert on Catholic theology).

Nor is this an attack on philosophy. One of the reason the West overtook the Orient is that the Chinese were stuck in something of a time warp. For them, being a good philosopher meant treating their masters as authorities not to be questioned. The best Chinese scholar was the one who mastered the classics rather than improve on them.

In the West, since the time of the Greeks, philosophy has been about doing better than one's teacher. The result has been steady innovation rather than the stasis that characterized Chinese philosophy.

Ironically, progressive liberalism has tended more toward the Chinese model than towards the traditional Western model of improving upon past masters. Freud is a prime example. Within the realm of psychoanalysis, Freud is the recognized master, and no other psychoanalyst can improve on his work. As such, psychoanalysis is based upon arguments from authority, much the same as Christianity. It is the same with modern PC. In Europe, questioning the tenets of PC is likely to land one in legal peril, while here it can cost one his job and result in social ostracism.

Bach mentioned the Frankfurt School in an earlier post. Part of this group's perversion of all values has been to make politics something based on authority and religion based upon reason. It is perversion on stilts.

I would certainly accord to your preacher the right to say and believe anything he wants. But removing the Greek influence from Christianity means the end result is no longer Christianity, but something else. Since words have meaning, I would not call anybody who does this kind of thing a Christian.


Untrue. He suggested the Greek influence, coming from a pagan culture, lacks the true connection to the Word that Judaic culture did. Trust me, my pastor is very conservative on theological matters. He is hardly the only one in line with this way of thinking, as it was popular at the very beginning of the Protestant Reformation. That's not to say that my Pastor believes all Greek studies in seminaries should end - far from it, as the oldest and most reliable books of the New Testament were written in Greek, the number one linguistic influence in the east end of the Mediterranean at Christ's time.


Bill, what is and what is not written in Greek doesn't mean anything; I am talking about the content, not the form.

With respect to your preacher, if a "conservative" is one who wishes to rewrite the Bible, pray tell, just what would a liberal be?



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13 Nov 2013, 4:39 pm

Bach, it has been longer than I care to think about since I studied the influence of Greek philosophy on the NT. But here are a couple of passages from Wiki on the matter:

"The conflict between the two modes of thought is recorded in Paul's encounters with Epicurean and Stoic philosophers in Acts 17:18, his diatribe against Greek philosophy in 1Corinthians 1:18-31 and his warning against philosophy in Colossians 2:8. However, as Christianity spread throughout the Hellenic world, an increasing number of church leaders were educated in Greek philosophy. The dominant philosophical traditions of the Greco-Roman world at the time were Stoicism, Platonism, and Epicureanism. Stoicism and particularly Platonism were readily incorporated into Christian ethics and Christian theology."

I would add that at the time of Christ, Palestine was a backwater in terms of political, economic, and intellectual influence. So, being educated in anything other than Judaism at that time meant being educated as a Greek. And Paul was not only a Roman citizen, but an educated man. So, even if Paul railed against the Greeks--which is hard to deny--he did so on Greek terms. An intellectual fight against Greek influence at that time would have been as futile as a fish fighting water.

Here is another:

"he Church historian Eusebius suggested, essentially, that Greek philosophy had been supplied providentially as a preparation for the Gospel. Augustine of Hippo, who ultimately systematized Christian philosophy, wrote in the 4th and early 5th century,
But when I read those books of the Platonists I was taught by them to seek incorporeal truth, so I saw your 'invisible things, understood by the things that are made' (Confessions 7. 20)."

Again, the reason for this is that there was no real alternative to Greek thought as far as intellectual matters went.

It was not until the fusion of Platonic and Aristotelian theology with Christianity that the concepts of strict omnipotence, omniscience, or benevolence became commonplace. The Platonic Theory of Forms had an enormous influence on Hellenic Christian views of God. In those philosophies, Forms were the ideals of every object in the physical world, and objects in the physical world were merely shadows of those perfect forms. Platonic philosophers were able to theorize about the forms by looking at objects in the material world, and imagining what the "Perfect" tree, or "Perfect" man would be. The Aristotelian view of God grew from these Platonic roots, arguing that God was the Infinite, or the Unmoved mover.
Hellenic Christians and their medieval successors then applied this Form-based philosophy to the Christian God. Philosophers took all the things that they considered good, Power, Love, Knowledge and Size, and posited that God was "infinite" in all these respects. They then concluded that God was omnipotent, omniscient, omnipresent and benevolent. Since God was perfect, any change would make him less than perfect, so they asserted that God was unchanging, or immutable.
Anselm of Canterbury, a priest, monk, and philosopher defined God as the "Being than which no greater can be conceived." Almost 200 years later, Thomas Aquinas, in his Summa Theologiae, article 3, wrote succinctly: "By 'God', however, we mean some infinite good".
With the establishment of the formal church, the development of creeds and formal theology, this view of God as Omni-Everything became nearly universal in the Christian World.

How would you respond?



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13 Nov 2013, 5:13 pm

Thelibrarian wrote:
Bach, it has been longer than I care to think about since I studied the influence of Greek philosophy on the NT. But here are a couple of passages from Wiki on the matter:

"The conflict between the two modes of thought is recorded in Paul's encounters with Epicurean and Stoic philosophers in Acts 17:18, his diatribe against Greek philosophy in 1Corinthians 1:18-31 and his warning against philosophy in Colossians 2:8. However, as Christianity spread throughout the Hellenic world, an increasing number of church leaders were educated in Greek philosophy. The dominant philosophical traditions of the Greco-Roman world at the time were Stoicism, Platonism, and Epicureanism. Stoicism and particularly Platonism were readily incorporated into Christian ethics and Christian theology."

Readily, yes. We find it in Irenaeus, Origin and Tertullian. I will admit that when it comes to the vast writings of the post-Apostolic Fathers, we find an attempt to incorporate the Gospel into Greek thought -- which usually led to some form of heresy, such as Origin's apokatastasis. One post-Apostolic writer whose name escapes me, even went so far as to equate Christianity with Plotinianism, identifying the Father with the One, the Son with Nous/Being, and the Holy Spirit the Emanations -- a parallel that leads to heresy. A lot of these early Apostolic Fathers had to have their writings purified a by Church Councils and other Christian writers.

I would add that at the time of Christ, Palestine was a backwater in terms of political, economic, and intellectual influence. So, being educated in anything other than Judaism at that time meant being educated as a Greek. And Paul was not only a Roman citizen, but an educated man. So, even if Paul railed against the Greeks--which is hard to deny--he did so on Greek terms. An intellectual fight against Greek influence at that time would have been as futile as a fish fighting water.

I don't know about that. The Pharisaical schools were flourishing until the Temple's destruction. Even the Great Rabbi Akiba had a flourishing school after the Temple's destruction.

Here is another:

"he Church historian Eusebius suggested, essentially, that Greek philosophy had been supplied providentially as a preparation for the Gospel. Augustine of Hippo, who ultimately systematized Christian philosophy, wrote in the 4th and early 5th century,
But when I read those books of the Platonists I was taught by them to seek incorporeal truth, so I saw your 'invisible things, understood by the things that are made' (Confessions 7. 20)."

I recall Eusebius writing those words - one revelation to the Hebrews, another to the Greeks. I'm certain that Augustine's mind was prepared for the Gospel by Plato -- perhaps we could even say the entire Mediterranean world was prepared by Greek thought -- but preparation is not revelation.

Again, the reason for this is that there was no real alternative to Greek thought as far as intellectual matters went.

It was not until the fusion of Platonic and Aristotelian theology with Christianity that the concepts of strict omnipotence, omniscience, or benevolence became commonplace.

But Scripture contains those concepts.

The Platonic Theory of Forms had an enormous influence on Hellenic Christian views of God. In those philosophies, Forms were the ideals of every object in the physical world, and objects in the physical world were merely shadows of those perfect forms. Platonic philosophers were able to theorize about the forms by looking at objects in the material world, and imagining what the "Perfect" tree, or "Perfect" man would be. The Aristotelian view of God grew from these Platonic roots, arguing that God was the Infinite, or the Unmoved mover.

The notion of the forms did influence Christian thought, without question. But when Aristotle argued a finite unmoved mover, unconcerned with anything but himself, how does this accord with the Trinity?

Hellenic Christians and their medieval successors then applied this Form-based philosophy to the Christian God. Philosophers took all the things that they considered good, Power, Love, Knowledge and Size, and posited that God was "infinite" in all these respects.

To the Greek, in-finitude was an imperfection. It was only the Hebrews who allowed for the infinite as a Good."

They then concluded that God was omnipotent, omniscient, omnipresent and benevolent. Since God was perfect, any change would make him less than perfect, so they asserted that God was unchanging, or immutable.

Again, these ideas predate Greek thought and are in Scripture.

Anselm of Canterbury, a priest, monk, and philosopher defined God as the "Being than which no greater can be conceived." Almost 200 years later, Thomas Aquinas, in his Summa Theologiae, article 3, wrote succinctly: "By 'God', however, we mean some infinite good".

Good scholastic arguments, but why would they be Greek?

With the establishment of the formal church, the development of creeds and formal theology, this view of God as Omni-Everything became nearly universal in the Christian World.

How would you respond?


I] In the main, I would agree that the relationship between Greek and Hebrew/Gospel thought can't be reduced to my account -- which was a summary caricature. But my point remains that Christianity is far less of a fusion between two worlds than most believe. More of an "adaptive appropriation," let us say of the Greek by the Christian. Christian revelation could usefully employ Greek categories and systems only by transcendentalizing those categories and making major changes to their systems.

Now, as for the liturgy that's a different story entirely! Greek and Roman elements are clearly present there. [/I]



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13 Nov 2013, 5:34 pm

Readily, yes. We find it in Irenaeus, Origin and Tertullian. I will admit that when it comes to the vast writings of the post-Apostolic Fathers, we find an attempt to incorporate the Gospel into Greek thought -- which usually led to some form of heresy, such as Origin's apokatastasis. One post-Apostolic writer whose name escapes me, even went so far as to equate Christianity with Plotinianism, identifying the Father with the One, the Son with Nous/Being, and the Holy Spirit the Emanations -- a parallel that leads to heresy. A lot of these early Apostolic Fathers had to have their writings purified a by Church Councils and other Christian writers.

How about the attempt to incorporate Greek thought into Christianity? My understanding is that classical thought was one of Augustine's greatest temptations--and a temptation to which he succumbed on more than one occasion. Though he is the only one I can think of off the top of my head, I seem to recall there being others who are considered paragons of orthodoxy. Is this not the case?

I would add that at the time of Christ, Palestine was a backwater in terms of political, economic, and intellectual influence. So, being educated in anything other than Judaism at that time meant being educated as a Greek. And Paul was not only a Roman citizen, but an educated man. So, even if Paul railed against the Greeks--which is hard to deny--he did so on Greek terms. An intellectual fight against Greek influence at that time would have been as futile as a fish fighting water.

I don't know about that. The Pharisaical schools were flourishing until the Temple's destruction. Even the Great Rabbi Akiba had a flourishing school after the Temple's destruction.

The standard humanist explanation for why Christianity succeeded in capturing the public imagination where Stoicism, Epicureanism, Neoplatonism, and the other failed is that these were philosophy, and above the understanding of many people whereas Christianity was able to appeal to a range of intellectual capabilities. I would surmise there is a grain of truth in this explanation.

By the same token, Judaism, with all its many laws and interpretations thereof, was also very complex. But was it complex in terms of theology or philosophy? In other words, exactly what were the Jewish schools teaching?


I recall Eusebius writing those words - one revelation to the Hebrews, another to the Greeks. I'm certain that Augustine's mind was prepared for the Gospel by Plato -- perhaps we could even say the entire Mediterranean world was prepared by Greek thought -- but preparation is not revelation.

Does not preparation parallel Nietzsche's position on presumptions? What do you mean by preparation? And how could that not color what proceeds it?


But Scripture contains those concepts.

To the Greek, in-finitude was an imperfection. It was only the Hebrews who allowed for the infinite as a Good."

They then concluded that God was omnipotent, omniscient, omnipresent and benevolent. Since God was perfect, any change would make him less than perfect, so they asserted that God was unchanging, or immutable.

Again, these ideas predate Greek thought and are in Scripture.

Anselm of Canterbury, a priest, monk, and philosopher defined God as the "Being than which no greater can be conceived." Almost 200 years later, Thomas Aquinas, in his Summa Theologiae, article 3, wrote succinctly: "By 'God', however, we mean some infinite good".

Good scholastic arguments, but why would they be Greek?

With the establishment of the formal church, the development of creeds and formal theology, this view of God as Omni-Everything became nearly universal in the Christian World.

You just exceeded my level of competence here, as I'm not familiar enough with the details to argue these points one way or the other.

One of these days, I intend to get back to studying Christianity. In fact, I hope to make an in-depth study of premodern Medieval thought the way I have with fascism and Marxism. But right now I am neck-deep in studying liberalism so I can understand people like you, Bill :wink:


I] In the main, I would agree that the relationship between Greek and Hebrew/Gospel thought can't be reduced to my account -- which was a summary caricature. But my point remains that Christianity is far less of a fusion between two worlds than most believe. More of an "adaptive appropriation," let us say of the Greek by the Christian. Christian revelation could usefully employ Greek categories and systems only by transcendentalizing those categories and making major changes to their systems.

I think logic would dictate that if there were no real changes between Old Testament and New Testament thinking that Christianity would be little more than Judaism with Christ. Since this obviously isn't the case, are those changes original to the minds of Christian thinkers? Or was there substantial influence from another quarter?

Now, as for the liturgy that's a different story entirely! Greek and Roman elements are clearly present there. [/I]

Yes, that is my understanding. But the liturgy is part of Christianity.



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13 Nov 2013, 5:59 pm

Oh my I'm getting a brain workout.

How about the attempt to incorporate Greek thought into Christianity? My understanding is that classical thought was one of Augustine's greatest temptations--and a temptation to which he succumbed on more than one occasion. Though he is the only one I can think of off the top of my head, I seem to recall there being others who are considered paragons of orthodoxy. Is this not the case?

BTW the Alexandrian School of theology was very Platonistic in its approach -- just to be fair to your position. Some Church Fathers didn't start out too well. Athens was a big university town in the 4th century (or 5th or 6th?), and I recall one future Church Father going there and having the time of his life!

The standard humanist explanation for why Christianity succeeded in capturing the public imagination where Stoicism, Epicureanism, Neoplatonism, and the other failed is that these were philosophy, and above the understanding of many people whereas Christianity was able to appeal to a range of intellectual capabilities. I would surmise there is a grain of truth in this explanation. By the same token, Judaism, with all its many laws and interpretations thereof, was also very complex. But was it complex in terms of theology or philosophy? In other words, exactly what were the Jewish schools teaching?

Why exactly Christianity caught on is unknown to me. Rabbinic Judaism provided a rich exegetical and mystical tradition. And there were many traditions of interpreting the Law. Apparently it's a fascinating study to discover what was being taught then, but I don't know enough about it.

Does not preparation parallel Nietzsche's position on presumptions? What do you mean by preparation? And how could that not color what proceeds it?

Preparation as presumption? Hmmm. Preparation = the mind being open to grace. There is properly no proceeding from, say, Plato to Christ. There is rather a fertile ground in the mind prepared for Christ's reception. Presumption seems to connote something distinct.


I think logic would dictate that if there were no real changes between Old Testament and New Testament thinking that Christianity would be little more than Judaism with Christ. Since this obviously isn't the case, are those changes original to the minds of Christian thinkers? Or was there substantial influence from another quarter?

Judaism was also a preparation (see above) for the reception of Christ. In some ways there is continuity, but what was radically new I think was God becoming man, showing us the way, and making final atonement for sin -- new stuff.

Now, as for the liturgy that's a different story entirely! Greek and Roman elements are clearly present there. [/I]

Yes, that is my understanding. But the liturgy is part of Christianity.[/quote]

[I] Touche![/]



Geekonychus
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13 Nov 2013, 6:10 pm

In the interest of bridging some gaps, they made the bible in (japanese) comic form:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Manga_Bible_(series)

Image
[img][800:893]http://anthonyuu.files.wordpress.com/2010/12/mary-manga_messiah_miracle_of_wine_at_cana-1024x893.jpg[/img]
Image


Jesus is now a badass superhero! Satisfied now, Librarian?
Image

Thread is now saved thanks to me!
https://i.chzbgr.com/maxW500/4021391616/h6BEFA469
BAD........ASS!


I know it's not very politically correct but you might even call me the Jesus of this thread! You have all been saved........by me! 8)



JSBACHlover
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13 Nov 2013, 6:14 pm

LOL -- Sorry guys, Librarian and I were being very Aspie-ish and got lost in our own worlds!