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Jamesy
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12 Aug 2013, 6:04 pm

I saw a fight yesterday outside this store. The man in the fight (wearing glasses) throwed the first punch and then the other guy hit him hard back in the face breaking his glasses.

How come the guy who got punched wearing glasses was not blinded? Does it depend on how hard the guy hit him? The frame of the glasses did break though scaring/breaking his nose.



MakaylaTheAspie
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12 Aug 2013, 6:06 pm

It just depends on the way he hit them. If it was square in the middle, that would explain the way you described it. He would have suffered some eye injuries if he had been punched on the left or right side.

Why were they fighting?


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Jamesy
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12 Aug 2013, 6:15 pm

MakaylaTheAspie wrote:
It just depends on the way he hit them. If it was square in the middle, that would explain the way you described it. He would have suffered some eye injuries if he had been punched on the left or right side.

Why were they fighting?



The guy with glasses was harassing his wife.



what sought of eye injuries would he have suffered if he hit him in the left or right side?



MakaylaTheAspie
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12 Aug 2013, 6:17 pm

Ah, that explains a lot.

Well, if the attacker hit hard enough, the glass could break and enter the eye itself, while being driven with the force of the attacker's fist. The person could need a glass eye if that happened.

The lightest injury you could get is a torn cornea or an injury to the eyes' lense.


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