I'm curious as to how prevalent large discrepancies between verbal and nonverbal ability are within the neuroatypical subpopulation. I've read a few studies, one of which even seemed to indicate that differences close over time relative to childhood measurements (although this may have been an artifact of regression to the mean), but most of the cases described involved a relatively small degree of unevenness.
I tested 164 for VCI (verbal IQ) on the WISC-IV with extended norms, but only 104 on PRI. A nonverbal test I took later gave 148, so the PRI could have been a fluke, but I remain horrible at drawing, painting, and assembling puzzles to this day. I'm better at math than most academic subjects involving language, however.
Has anybody else had a similar experience?