How does Aspergers fit under ASD?

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I am a bit confused by the articles I have been reading. I was directed to a lady in my area (after the Dr. in another area not putting me in his book) and she said I seem to have Aspergers but now its hard to diagnose because it is all under the ASD. And she said that I could not have Autism cause I spoke early. So how does Aspergers fit under ASD if the language differences separate them? If I can not have Autism then does that now mean that I can not have Aspergers? I fit everything but now I may not get a diagnosis because I talked early instead of late. I do not understand how the DSM-V is putting everything under the same Diagnosis. Please can anyone help clarify it for me?

The new criteria for ASD do not require you to speak late. They very specifically removed that criteria as mandatory (although it is one of possibly several criteria you can meet).

to add to what verdandi has said,ASD isnt another term for classic autism,its reflecting on the fact autism is also a spectrum and varies from presentation to presentation,that was lorna wings own definition back when she came up with the term.

to put it another way,ever heard of the condition called faetal alcohol syndrome?
it became clear a while ago that it wasnt just the most profoundly affected who got FAS but there were also people who got less obvious symptoms and it varied greatly,so they now use the term FASD [faetal alcohol spectrum disorder].

aspergers is just another form of autism, like classic autism or PDDNOS are forms of autism,so there is no difference or shame in being associated with the autism spectrum or words like 'autistic'.
aspies share many traits with us.

I think what she meant is "You cannot have classic autism" and there is a difference.