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equinn
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19 Feb 2009, 6:24 pm

How many of you diagnosed recieved a diagnosis of pdd-nos, initially, and then upon 2nd eval it was Aspergers?
At what age? What new criteria was met/or not?

Do you feel pdd-nos is more closely related to "autism" then Aspergers?



whitetiger
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19 Feb 2009, 6:34 pm

I was diagnosed just NLD (non-verbal learning disability) twice before I was diagnosed AS. I've known friends with PPD-NOS and they seem more like aspies than plain HFA's to me, just without the obsessive interests. That's just my experience.



Danielismyname
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19 Feb 2009, 7:22 pm

whitetiger wrote:
... than plain HFA's to me, ... .


HFA need to meet the criteria for Autistic Disorder, rather than PDD-NOS.

PDD-NOS is lacking in uniformity that's evident in the populations diagnosed with Asperger's Disorder and Autistic Disorder; a recent study pointed out such (the study that says the DSM-IV-TR's version of Asperger's Disorder doesn't exist is wrought with error because those doing the study didn't know how to apply the criteria properly. When it is applied properly, the prevalence rate is close to Gillberg's criteria). In other words, PDD-NOS can resemble anything, but usually with less symptoms and/or less severe symptoms.

But anyway, no, I've never had PDD-NOS. I've had Autistic Disorder a couple of times and Asperger's Disorder once (Gillberg's).