Knowing English, Spanish and Portuguese is a great help to understand not just written French, but more or less any written Romance language other than Romanian. I suspect you have to learn French to get a feel of how profoundly Gallicized English is, though German probably helps, too, by showing the other side of the coin (what a by-no-means-so-extremely-Latinized Germanic language looks like).
Kiprobalhato wrote:
that's what i was guessing.

i can comprehend good chunk of written Portuguese since i know Spanish, but spoken is a completely different story.

some words look like Spanish word with a final -n replaced with -m.
Spanish
-n usually corresponds to Portuguese
-m, except when preceded by a stressed
a or
o; in the latter case, you get the idiosyncratically Portuguese endings
-ão (
capitán,
capitão;
salón,
salão) and
-ã (
afán,
afã). Just as in the Spanish letter
ñ, the tilde was originally a small
n (or possibly an
m) on top of the other letter. Only by historical accident were the characters
ã and
õ preserved, while
ẽ,
ĩ and
ũ were replaced by
em (
trem, Spanish
tren),
im (
fim, Spanish
fin) and
um (
algum, Spanish
algún or
alguno) at the end of words, and by
en,
in and
un in other places (such as in the plurals of those same words:
trens,
fins and
alguns).
Note this final
m is never pronounced like the one in Spanish
manzana (Portuguese
maçã). The letter choice between
n and
m isn?t strictly motivated by phonetics in a syllable-final position, either in Spanish or in Portuguese, because only one nasal sound is natural there (loanwords, including Latinisms like
referéndum, can stretch this a bit, but that?s all). In Spanish,
n may have been chosen because, in many dialects (notably in Madrid, Spain), this sound is alveolar (like the
n- in
nariz) when followed by a vowel or a pause (otherwise, it?s dictated by the following consonant). In other dialects, however, it?s velar, like the final consonant of English
sing. This criterion doesn?t work in Portuguese, because there?s no such syllable-final alveolar nasal consonant. The velar one exists dialectally, and I think it was more common in the past, but the current international standard is to pronounce those endings with nasal vowels or diphthongs as the only trace of the former consonant. In short, an
m is just as good as an
n or a tilde for representing them.
If you want to polish a bit more your recognition of Portuguese cognates to Spanish words, bear in mind that Latin single
-n- and
-l- between vowels, preserved in Spanish (and, as far as I know, in every other Romance language), were dropped in Portuguese, so you have
moeda and
saída for Spanish
moneda and
salida. In many cases, you?ll find an
-i- in the place of the lost consonant (
sereia,
teia vs Spanish
sirena,
tela), but this is because of a general tendency to break hiatuses when the first vowel is stressed (
passeio,
correio vs Spanish
paseo,
correo). Latin double consonants
-nn- and
-ll-, which became the Spanish consonants
-ñ- and
-ll-, were instead reduced to single
-n- and
-l- in Portuguese:
ano,
selo vs Spanish
año,
sello.
Part of the reason these consonants are spelled differently (
nh and
lh instead of
ñ and
ll) in Portuguese is because they originated from different Latin sounds. Many Portuguese
-nh-s correspond to Spanish
-n-s (
espinha, Spanish
espina), and many
-lh-s, to Spanish soft
-g-s or
-j-s (
colher,
olho vs Spanish
coger,
ojo). Of course, many others do coïncide with Spanish
-ñ- and
-ll-:
aranha,
falhar vs Spanish
araña,
fallar.
_________________
The red lake has been forgotten. A dust devil stuns you long enough to shroud forever those last shards of wisdom. The breeze rocking this forlorn wasteland whispers in your ears, “Não resta mais que uma sombra”.