20 Dec 2020, 2:05 am
20 Dec 2020, 2:06 am
20 Dec 2020, 2:06 am
20 Dec 2020, 2:07 am
20 Dec 2020, 2:08 am
ironpony wrote:
Oh okay. So I was doing a study on birth control and it turns out that using condoms has a 85% success rate. Using the pill has a 91% success rate. And having unprotected sex without ejaculation has a 76% percent rate.
So if a couple of having sex were to do all three, how much would the percent of success be then? And if possible, could you explain how to do that formula too
?
So if a couple of having sex were to do all three, how much would the percent of success be then? And if possible, could you explain how to do that formula too
?Hmmmm
Social scientists might disagree with my reasoning but I will venture a guess.
First you turn the numbers on their heads. If you have an 85 percent success rate in stopping pregnancy it must mean that there is a 15 percent failure rate for condoms, and 91 translates to 9 percent failure rate for the pill.
So if you did both then the failure rate would be 9 percent of 15 percent. Which would be 1.35 percent. Which turned back around would translate to a success rate of 100 minus 1.35, or 98.65 percent for combining the two.
20 Dec 2020, 2:09 am
20 Dec 2020, 2:10 am
naturalplastic wrote:
ironpony wrote:
Oh okay. So I was doing a study on birth control and it turns out that using condoms has a 85% success rate. Using the pill has a 91% success rate. And having unprotected sex without ejaculation has a 76% percent rate.
So if a couple of having sex were to do all three, how much would the percent of success be then? And if possible, could you explain how to do that formula too?
So if a couple of having sex were to do all three, how much would the percent of success be then? And if possible, could you explain how to do that formula too
?Hmmmm
Social scientists might disagree with my reasoning but I will venture a guess.
First you turn the numbers on their heads. If you have an 85 percent success rate in stopping pregnancy it must mean that there is a 15 percent failure rate for condoms, and 91 translates to 9 percent failure rate for the pill.
So if you did both then the failure rate would be 9 percent of 15 percent. Which would be 1.35 percent. Which turned back around would translate to a success rate of 100 minus 1.35, or 98.65 percent for combining the two.
Oh okay thanks. What if you combine the third one, of no ejaculating inside during sex? What would it come out too then, with the other two?
The failure rate of not ejaculating is 24%. So if I add 9% and 15% together, it comes out to 24. So would i then take 24% out of 24%?
20 Dec 2020, 2:21 am
20 Dec 2020, 2:25 am
ironpony wrote:
naturalplastic wrote:
ironpony wrote:
Oh okay. So I was doing a study on birth control and it turns out that using condoms has a 85% success rate. Using the pill has a 91% success rate. And having unprotected sex without ejaculation has a 76% percent rate.
So if a couple of having sex were to do all three, how much would the percent of success be then? And if possible, could you explain how to do that formula too?
So if a couple of having sex were to do all three, how much would the percent of success be then? And if possible, could you explain how to do that formula too
?Hmmmm
Social scientists might disagree with my reasoning but I will venture a guess.
First you turn the numbers on their heads. If you have an 85 percent success rate in stopping pregnancy it must mean that there is a 15 percent failure rate for condoms, and 91 translates to 9 percent failure rate for the pill.
So if you did both then the failure rate would be 9 percent of 15 percent. Which would be 1.35 percent. Which turned back around would translate to a success rate of 100 minus 1.35, or 98.65 percent for combining the two.
Oh okay thanks. What if you combine the third one, of no ejaculating inside during sex? What would it come out too then, with the other two?
The failure rate of not ejaculating is 24%. So if I add 9% and 15% together, it comes out to 24. So would i then take 24% out of 24%?
No no no. Like I said ...you multiply. Not add. Percentages are really fractions. So by combining odds you are making fractions OF fractions (slicing pieces into smaller pieces, not adding pieces into bigger pieces).
For the first two - I showed you that you get a failure rate of 1.35 percent. So you multiply that by 24 percent, and get ...what?....about .33 percent (about one third of one percent, or one in 300). So you then subtract that tiny number from 100 to get the success rate of 99.67 percent.
20 Dec 2020, 2:27 am
ironpony wrote:
naturalplastic wrote:
ironpony wrote:
Oh okay. So I was doing a study on birth control and it turns out that using condoms has a 85% success rate. Using the pill has a 91% success rate. And having unprotected sex without ejaculation has a 76% percent rate.
So if a couple of having sex were to do all three, how much would the percent of success be then? And if possible, could you explain how to do that formula too?
So if a couple of having sex were to do all three, how much would the percent of success be then? And if possible, could you explain how to do that formula too
?Hmmmm
Social scientists might disagree with my reasoning but I will venture a guess.
First you turn the numbers on their heads. If you have an 85 percent success rate in stopping pregnancy it must mean that there is a 15 percent failure rate for condoms, and 91 translates to 9 percent failure rate for the pill.
So if you did both then the failure rate would be 9 percent of 15 percent. Which would be 1.35 percent. Which turned back around would translate to a success rate of 100 minus 1.35, or 98.65 percent for combining the two.
Oh okay thanks. What if you combine the third one, of no ejaculating inside during sex? What would it come out too then, with the other two?
Feyokien already solved it for you:
0.09* 0.15 * 0.24 *100 = 0.3%
ironpony wrote:
The failure rate of not ejaculating is 24%. So if I add 9% and 15% together, it comes out to 24. So would i then take 24% out of 24%?
Nope. Don't add them. Don't take percents of other percents. Just multiply.
20 Dec 2020, 2:28 am
20 Dec 2020, 2:30 am
AuroraBorealisGazer wrote:
ironpony wrote:
naturalplastic wrote:
ironpony wrote:
Oh okay. So I was doing a study on birth control and it turns out that using condoms has a 85% success rate. Using the pill has a 91% success rate. And having unprotected sex without ejaculation has a 76% percent rate.
So if a couple of having sex were to do all three, how much would the percent of success be then? And if possible, could you explain how to do that formula too?
So if a couple of having sex were to do all three, how much would the percent of success be then? And if possible, could you explain how to do that formula too
?Hmmmm
Social scientists might disagree with my reasoning but I will venture a guess.
First you turn the numbers on their heads. If you have an 85 percent success rate in stopping pregnancy it must mean that there is a 15 percent failure rate for condoms, and 91 translates to 9 percent failure rate for the pill.
So if you did both then the failure rate would be 9 percent of 15 percent. Which would be 1.35 percent. Which turned back around would translate to a success rate of 100 minus 1.35, or 98.65 percent for combining the two.
Oh okay thanks. What if you combine the third one, of no ejaculating inside during sex? What would it come out too then, with the other two?
Feyokien already solved it for you:
0.09* 0.15 * 0.24 *100 = 0.3%
ironpony wrote:
The failure rate of not ejaculating is 24%. So if I add 9% and 15% together, it comes out to 24. So would i then take 24% out of 24%?
Nope. Don't add them. Don't take percents of other percents. Just multiply.
Oh okay thanks, I tried the formula myself and come up with 99.68, but I guess I rounded up instead of down.
20 Dec 2020, 2:40 am
