Page 1 of 1 [ 3 posts ] 

MusicIsLife2Me
Velociraptor
Velociraptor

User avatar

Joined: 18 Jan 2012
Gender: Female
Posts: 401
Location: In a musical wonderland ♬ ♭ ♫ ♩

26 May 2017, 9:28 pm

Hello. I'd love an answer to this.
The DSM-5, in regards to personality disorders, states that you can't be diagnosed with one if there is evidence of your symptoms being the result of the effects of drugs.

My question is this; what if a child's mother took an anticonvulsant while pregnant and the child had physical and mental deficits because of that drug? Would that also count?


_________________
Music washes away from the soul the dust of everyday life.


starkid
Veteran
Veteran

User avatar

Joined: 9 Feb 2012
Gender: Female
Posts: 5,489
Location: California Bay Area

28 May 2017, 2:28 am

I think so but there would probably have to be proof (a diagnosis) that in-utero drug exposure was the cause.



CharityGoodyGrace
Veteran
Veteran

User avatar

Joined: 9 Nov 2014
Gender: Female
Posts: 1,124

14 Jul 2017, 7:40 am

I think it's so wrong to assume that just because someone's problem is caused by brain damage that they DON'T have a personality disorder... or feelings or thoughts... damage can cause bad feelings and thoughts! Or even good ones!